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I am studying functional analysis and I have a problem about finding a sequence converging to zero such that this sequence is not in $\ell^p$ for any $p$. By $\ell^p$, I mean

$$\ell^p := \left\{ (x_k)=(x_1,x_2,...):\sum_{k=1}^\infty|x_k|^p<\infty \right\}$$ where $1<p<\infty$.

First, I thought of the simple sequence $(1/k)_{k \in \mathbb{N}}$ which converges to zero, but, then, I realized it is an element of $\ell^p$ when $p>2$. I thought of a couple more examples, but they did not work either. Can somebody help me out here?

Mittens
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leo
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  • my question is . i do not why my question does not seem completely on the above

    I am studying functional analysis and I have a problem about finding a sequence converging to zero such that this sequence is not in lp for every p. By lp I mean lp={(x_k)=(x1,x2,...):Σ|x_k|^p<infinity} where 1<_p<infinity. first I thought very simple sequence 1/k which converges to zero but then I realized when p>_2 it is element of lp space. I thought couple more examples but they did not work either. can somebody help me out here?

    Thanks.

    – leo Nov 26 '14 at 18:33

3 Answers3

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Try the sequence $x_k = 1/\ln(k+1)$.

Robert Israel
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    Wonderfully slow – Simon S Nov 26 '14 at 18:44
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    @RobertIsrael how do we know that the series $$\sum_{k} \left\vert \frac{1}{\ln (k+1)} \right\vert^p$$ fails to converge for every $p \in [1, +\infty)$? – Saaqib Mahmood Nov 12 '16 at 20:08
  • @SimonS can you please answer my question in my last comment? – Saaqib Mahmood Nov 12 '16 at 20:09
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    Limit comparison test with $\sum 1/k$. – Robert Israel Nov 13 '16 at 03:45
  • @WesleyStrik Isn't this wrong?

    For $k \geq 2$ then we have $|\frac{1}{ln(k+1)}| < 1$. From which we obtain: $|\frac{1}{ln(k+1)}| > |\frac{1}{ln(k+1)}|^p$ for $p \geq 1$

    – jakvah Oct 04 '20 at 22:11
  • @SaaqibMahmood If the doubt holds, look at this:https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3957715/how-to-prove-the-divergence-of-sum-frac1-lnk1p-for-p-in-1-inf/3957724?noredirect=1#comment8161702_3957724. – John Mars Dec 21 '20 at 23:01
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    To prove the convergence for $p\ge 1$, note that $\ln (k+1)\le (k+1)^{\frac 1p}$ for large $k$, whence we get $x_k^p \ge \frac 1{k+1}$ for all large $k$. – Koro Dec 12 '22 at 02:50
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If $k \in \mathbb N_{\geq 2}$ $$|\ln(k+1)| > 1$$ Now if $p \in \mathbb N_{\geq 1}$ $$|\ln(k+1)|^p \gt |\ln(k+1)| \implies \left| \frac{1}{\ln(k+1)} \right|>\left|\frac{1}{\ln(k+1)}\right|^p$$ By the Raabe-Duhamel's Test, consider the sequence, $$b_n=n \left(\frac{a_n}{a_{n+1}}-1\right)$$ where $$a_n=\frac{1}{ln(1+n)^p}$$ Then $$ \begin{array}\\ L=\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} b_n\\ =\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} n\left(\frac{\ln(2+n)^p}{\ln(1+n)^p}-1\right)\\ =\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\ln(n+1)}\ln\left(\frac{2+n}{1+n}\right)\sum_{i=0}^{p-1} (-1)^{p-i-1}\left( \frac{\ln(2+n)}{\ln(1+n)} \right)^i\\ =(-1)^{p-1}\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{\ln(n+1)}\ln\left(\frac{2+n}{1+n}\right)\\ =(-1)^p \lim\limits_{t \to 0+} \frac{\ln(1+t)}{t\ln(t)} \qquad\text{(Changing Variables } t=\frac{1}{n+1})\\ =(-1)^p \lim\limits_{t \to 0+} \frac{1}{(1+t)(1+\ln(t))}\qquad\text{(By L' Hopital's Rule)}\\ = 0 < 1\\ \end{array} $$

Hence, the series $\sum_{n\geq1} a_n$ diverges for all $p \geq 1$ i.e. the sequence $\left(\frac{1}{ln(n+1)}\right)_{n\geq1}$ is not $p$-th summable for any $p\geq1$ but converges to $0$.

Oogway
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  • Shouldn't it be that $\left| \ln(k+1) \right|^p \geq \left| \ln( k + 1) \right|$, since $p \geq 1$ so it can be $p=1$. – JezuzStardust Dec 05 '22 at 10:20
  • @JezuzStardust if $k=1$, $ln(k+1)=ln(2)<1$ and as a result $|ln(k+1)|^p<|ln(k+1)|$ for every $p>1$. So we must start from $k\geq 2$. Does that answer your question? – Oogway Mar 10 '23 at 06:37
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@Robert Israel's answer is great. And I think the easiest way to prove that the sequence $(x_i), x_i = 1 / \ln (i+1)$ is not in $\ell^p$, where $p$ is a real number and $1 \leq p < \infty$, is using Schlömilch's Generalization of Cauchy Condensation Test.

This generalization establishes:

$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{f(n}) \, \mbox{ converges if and only if } \, \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{(u(n+1)-u(n)) f(u(n))} \mbox{ converges, } $$ where $u(n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence of positive integers such that there is a positive real number $N$, for which:

$$ \frac{u(n+1)-u(n)}{u(n)-u(n-1)} \, < \, N \mbox{ para todo } n. $$

Setting $u(n) = 2^n-1$ and then we have

$$ \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} {\frac{1}{\ln (i+1) ^p}} \, \mbox{ converges if and only if } \, \sum_{i=0}^{\infty}{ \frac{2^i}{(\ln (2^i) ) ^p }} = \frac{1}{(\ln (2))^p} \, \sum_{i=0}^{\infty}{\frac{2^i}{i^p}} \, \mbox { converges } $$

Since, for all $p$, the term $(\ln(2))^p$ is a constant, we only have to investigate the convergence of the last series.

We will use the ratio test, where, if $L$ is the limit of the ratio of two consecutive terms of the sequence, then, if $L< 1$, the series converges, and, if $L> 1$, the series diverges.

$$ L = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{2^{n+1}}{2^n} \cdot \frac{(n+1)^p}{n^p} = 2 \cdot \lim_{n\to\infty} \left( \frac{n+1}{n} \right)^p = 2 $$

Since $L>1$, the series diverges, as does the original series.

lcmpereira
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