I'm following Davis & Kirk's computation that $\pi_4(S^3)=\mathbb Z/2$ using the Serre spectral sequence but I'm having problems at the very end.
We consider a homotopy fibration $X\to S^3 \to K(\mathbb Z,3)$ where the second map induces an iso on $\pi_3$. Looking at the long exact sequence we get that the homotopy groups of $X$ are those of $S^3$ except at 3 where it is 0. In particular, by Hurewicz we get that $H_4(X)=\pi_4(S^3)$ and this is how we will deduce $\pi_4(S^3)$ using $X$.
Taking the homotopy fiber of the above fibration yields a homotopy fibration $K(\mathbb Z,2)\to X \to S^3$. We work with the cohomological Serre spectral sequence of this homotopy fibration.
First: We get that $\mathbb Z/2=E_4^{3,2}=E_\infty^{3,2}$ and $0=E_4^{0,4}=E_\infty^{0,4}$. I agree with this. However, they conclude that $\mathbb Z/2=H^5(X)$ and $0=H^4(X)$. Why is that? The $E_\infty$ terms give in general some quotients of two consecutive subgroups in the filtrations of $H^5(X)$ and of $H^4(X)$ respectively, why do they give all the group in this case?
Second: They conclude that $H_4(X)=\mathbb Z/2$ by the universal coefficient theorem. I don't see how this goes. Using the universal coefficient theorem for $H^4$ gives $\hom(H_4(X),\mathbb Z)=0$ and using it for $H^5$ gives something involving $Ext_1(H_4(X),\mathbb Z)$ that I don't see how it could be useful.