I have some issues understandig a proof of the following theorem.
Let $V$ be a finite-dimensional $K$-vector space and $f: V \to V$ a linear operator. Then the following are equivalent:
- $f$ is injective
- $f$ is surjective
- $f$ is bijective.
Proof
3 => 1, 2: Trivial
1 => 3:
Let $\dim V = n\in \mathbb{N}$. Consider $\mathscr{B}=\{ b_1,\ldots, b_n\}$ a basis for $V$.
Now consider $T = \{ f(b_1), \ldots, f(b_n)\}$. Since $f$ is injective this set is linear independent.
If $T$ spans the whole space, then $T$ would be a basis and $f$ would be bijective.
But why does $T$ span the whole space? Lecture notes refer to the following theorem:
Let $T\subseteq S\subseteq V$ where $T$ is linear independant, $\text{span}(S) =V$ then there exists a basis $\mathscr{B}$ for $V$ such that $T\subseteq \mathscr{B}\subseteq S$.
I don't see how this theorem can be used here.