In a physics proof I've been following, the author claims that by using integration by parts on the LHS of the following equation n times, we get the RHS.
$$ \int_a^b f^{(n)}(x)g(x) dx = (-1)^{(n)}\int_a^b f(x)g^{(n)}(x) dx$$
I've been staring at this for hours and still don't understand why this is true. How would I go about proving this?