We will show the following. Note that the above definition of a semi-inner product makes sense for both a real and a complex vector space, so we state the result for both fields below.
Let $\mathscr{X}$ be a vector space over $\mathbb{F}$, where $\mathbb{F}$ is fixed as one of $\mathbb{R}$ or $\mathbb{C}$. Let $u$ be a semi-inner product on $\mathscr{X}$. Let $x, y\in \mathscr{X}$. The following are equivalent.
$({\rm i})$ We have $|u(x, y)|^{2} = u(x, x) u(y, y)$.
$({\rm ii})$ We have $u(y, y) = 0$ or otherwise have $u(x + \lambda y, x + \lambda y) = 0$ for some $\lambda\in\mathbb{F}$.
$({\rm ii})$ There are $\alpha , \beta \in \mathbb{F}$ with at least one of $\alpha$ or $\beta$ not equal to $0$ such that $u(\alpha x + \beta y) = 0$.
We remind the reader that the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality holds in the setting of semi-inner product spaces (see here). More specifically, for any $z_{1}, z_{2}\in \mathscr{X}$ we have
\begin{equation}
|u(z_{1}, z_{2})|^{2} \leq u(z_{1}, z_{1}) u(z_{2}, z_{2}) . \tag{1}
\end{equation}
$({\rm ii}) \Rightarrow ({\rm iii})$. This is trivial.
$({\rm iii}) \Rightarrow ({\rm ii})$. Assume there are $\alpha , \beta \in \mathbb{F}$ with at least one of $\alpha$ or $\beta$ not equal to $0$ such that $u(\alpha x + \beta y) = 0$. If $\alpha = 0$ then $\beta \neq 0$ and
\begin{equation}
u(y, y) = |\beta |^{-2} u(\beta y, \beta y) = |\beta |^{2} u(\alpha x + \beta y, \alpha x + \beta y) = 0 .
\end{equation}
Otherwise, if $\alpha \neq 0$ then
\begin{equation}
u(x + (\tfrac{\beta}{\alpha})y, x + (\tfrac{\beta}{\alpha})y) = |\alpha |^{-2} u(\alpha x + \beta y, \alpha x + \beta y) = 0 .
\end{equation}
Regardless of the value of $\alpha$ we see that $({\rm ii})$ holds.
$({\rm ii}) \Rightarrow ({\rm i})$. If $u(y, y) = 0$ then $(1)$ implies $|u(x, y)|^{2} \leq 0$ and the conclusion in $({\rm i})$ readily follows. Otherwise, there is $\lambda\in\mathbb{F}$ such that $u(x + \lambda y, x + \lambda y) = 0$. We claim that for each $z\in\mathscr{X}$ we have
\begin{equation}
u(x, z) = -\lambda u(y, z) . \tag{2}
\end{equation}
Let $z\in\mathscr{X}$. By the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality $(1)$ we have
\begin{equation}
|u(x, z) - (-\lambda u(y, z)| = |u(x + \lambda y, z)| \leq u(x + \lambda y)^{\tfrac{1}{2}} u(z, z)^{\tfrac{1}{2}} = 0 .
\end{equation}
Hence $(2)$ follows. Using $(2)$, we deduce
\begin{equation}
u(x, y) = -\lambda u(y, y) \tag{3}
\end{equation}
and
\begin{equation}
u(x, x) = -\lambda u(y, x) = (-\lambda ) \overline{u(x, y)} = (-\lambda ) \overline{ (-\lambda ) u(y, y) } = |\lambda |^{2} u(y, y) . \tag{4}
\end{equation}
From $(3)$ and $(4)$ we deduce
\begin{equation}
u(x, x) u(y, y) - |u(x, y)|^{2} = {} \big( |\lambda |^{2} u(y, y) \big) u(y, y) - |\lambda |^{2} u(y, y)^{2} = 0
\end{equation}
and $({\rm i})$ follows.
$({\rm i}) \Rightarrow ({\rm ii})$. Assume $|u(x, y)|^{2} = u(x, x) u(y, y)$. If $u(y, y) = 0$ then the conclusion of $({\rm ii})$ is immediate. Otherwise, we have $u(y, y) \neq 0$. For each $\lambda\in\mathbb{F}$ we have
\begin{equation}
u(x + \lambda y, x + \lambda y) = u(x, x) + 2 \, {\rm Re} (\overline{\lambda} u(x, y) ) + |\lambda |^{2} u(y, y) . \tag{5}
\end{equation}
By taking $\lambda = -\frac{u(x, y) }{u(y, y) }$ in $(5)$ and using the assumption from $({\rm i})$, we get
\begin{align*}
u(x + \lambda y, x + \lambda y) &= u(x, x) - 2\frac{|u(x, y)|^{2} }{u(y, y) } + \frac{|u(x, y)|^{2} }{u(y, y) } \\
&= \frac{u(x, x) u(y, y) - |u(x, y)|^{2} }{u(y, y) } = 0 .
\end{align*}
Hence we deduce that $({\rm ii})$ holds. This completes the proof.
$$\left(\bar\gamma u(x,y)+\gamma u(y,x)\right)^2=4\left|\gamma\right|^2u(y,y)u(x,x)$$ and $$\left|u(x,y)\right|^2\left(e^{-i\theta}e^{i\varphi} +e^{i\theta}e^{-i\varphi}\right)^2=4u(y,y)u(x,x).$$ How can I show that $e^{-i\theta}e^{i\varphi}+e^{i\theta}e^{-i\varphi}=2$? Or am I making a mistake somewhere?
– Cm7F7Bb Oct 19 '12 at 14:46