While playing around with random binomial coefficients , I observed that the following identity seems to hold for all positive integers $n$:
$$ \sum_{k=0}^{2n} (-1)^k \binom{4n}{2k}\cdot\binom{2n}{k}^{-1}=\frac{1}{1-2n}.$$
However, I am unable to furnish a proof for it ( though this result is just a conjecture ).
Any ideas/suggestions/solutions are welcome.