68

The equality$$\left(1-\frac13+\frac15-\frac17+\cdots\right)^2=\frac38\left(\frac1{1^2}+\frac1{2^2}+\frac1{3^2}+\frac1{4^2}+\cdots\right)\label{a}\tag{1}$$follows from the fact that the sum of the first series is $\dfrac\pi4$, whereas the sum of the second one is $\dfrac{\pi^2}6$.

My question is: can someone provide a proof that \eqref{a} holds without using this? I am asking this because I once saw a text by Norman Wildberger in which he claimed that \eqref{a} cannot be proved without proving that the sum of the first series is $\dfrac\pi4$ and that the sum of the second one is $\dfrac{\pi^2}6$.

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    The equality can be rewritten $\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{dx,dy}{(1+x^2)(1+y^2)}=\frac{3}{8}\int_0^1\int_0^1\frac{ds,dt}{1-st}$. Conjecturally, an equality like this should admit a proof using only additivity, change of variables, and Stokes' theorem, though I'm not sure how one would find such a proof. – Julian Rosen Oct 02 '17 at 15:37
  • I don't think you'll find anything simpler than starting from the partial fraction decomposition of $\frac{1}{e^{2i \pi z}-1}$. – reuns Oct 02 '17 at 15:44
  • The LHS is integral of 1/(1+x^2) which is Arc tan x for x=1. RHS is Fourrier expansion of f(x) =x^2 for x=Pi. may be finding a relation between the integrants help. – sirous Oct 02 '17 at 17:22
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    i can somehow wrestle it down to the fact that $\cot(\pi x)^2=1/(2 \sin(\pi x))^2$ for $x=1/4$ but it somehow feels like cheating because this fact will also give me both sides seperatly :-/ – tired Oct 04 '17 at 23:48
  • to give some more detail: the above follows from the fact that you statement is equivalent to $$(\sum_{k=1,..,4}\chi_1(k)\zeta(1,k/4))^2=\tfrac{3}{4}\sum_{k=1,..,4}\chi_1(k)\zeta(2,k/4) $$ maybe some number thoerist can bring it home from here (the lhs involves some limits). Afterwards we apply some polygamma identities and are "done" – tired Oct 05 '17 at 17:48
  • Is it possible to use the identity of Ramanujan proved in this post (see equation $(16)$ of the post)? I tried some manipulations but did not succeed so far. – Paramanand Singh Oct 06 '17 at 15:29
  • Trying hard but not sure if this will work. The above comment is for other more knowledgeable people here to see if this can be of any help. – Paramanand Singh Oct 06 '17 at 15:34
  • I find it absolutely incomprehensible that a question like this one would be closed for "lacking context". Even if the close voters don't see the interest, the upvotes of both the question and the excellent answers should give you pause. It looks like it won't be long and we have to begin any question with an explanation of why mathematics is relevant at all. – doetoe Sep 17 '25 at 10:16
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    @doetoe It is personal. It is not the only question of mine that was attacked a few hours ago. This one and this one are being also being reviewed for closure now. – José Carlos Santos Sep 17 '25 at 10:45
  • @JoséCarlosSantos In that case you should probably flag for moderator attention – doetoe Sep 17 '25 at 15:04
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    @doetoe I already did it. – José Carlos Santos Sep 17 '25 at 15:48

3 Answers3

34

If we put $$f(t) =\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin nt} {n} $$ then $$f^{2}(t)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin^{2}nt}{n^{2}} +\text{(terms containing }\sin nt\sin mt) $$ and integrating this term by term with respect to $t$ over $[-\pi, \pi] $ should give us $$\pi\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{2}}$$ and therefore we see that the RHS of the equation in question is $$\frac{3}{8\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f^{2}(t)\,dt$$ This needs to be proved to be equal to $f^{2}(\pi/2)$. The function $f(t) $ is given in closed form as $$f(t) = \begin{cases} \dfrac{\pi - t} {2}, 0<t\leq \pi\\ 0,t=0\\ -\dfrac{\pi +t} {2}, - \pi\leq t<0 \end{cases}$$ and $f(t+2\pi)=f(t)$. So this works out fine.

  • @JoséCarlosSantos: thanks for the appreciation. The above solution does use the fact that the LHS is $\pi^{2}/16$. And I am not sure if there is any direct approach to square the series for $\arctan x$ and relate it to series $\sum y^{n} /n^{2}$ for some function $y$ of $x$. – Paramanand Singh Oct 03 '17 at 15:22
  • If your solution had not used the fact that the LHS is equal to $\frac{\pi^2}{16}$, then I would have marked it as the accepted answer. And I will, if nothing better comes along. – José Carlos Santos Oct 03 '17 at 15:25
  • @JoséCarlosSantos i posted my approach as answer. if it doesn't fit your requirements, let me know and i delete it timmediatly – tired Oct 07 '17 at 14:20
29

Here is a proof of the identity $$\left(\sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)}\right)^2 = \frac{3}{8} \sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \frac{1}{n^2}$$ without knowing the value of either series.

Consider the double integral \begin{align*} I &= \int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{(1+x^2)(1+y^2)} \ dy \ dx. \end{align*} On one hand, we observe \begin{align*} \frac{1}{(1+x^2)(1+y^2)} &= \sum_{n \geq 0} \left(-x^2 \right)^n \sum_{m \geq 0} \left(-y^2 \right)^m, \quad |x|,|y| < 1. \end{align*} Then, we get that \begin{align*} I &= \int_{0}^1 \int_{0}^1 \sum_{n \geq 0} \left(-x^2 \right)^n \sum_{m \geq 0} \left(-y^2 \right)^m \ dy \ dx \\ &=\sum_{n \geq 0}\sum_{m \geq 0} \int_{0}^1 \int_{0}^1 \left(-x^2 \right)^n \left(-y^2 \right)^m \ dy \ dx \\ &=\sum_{n \geq 0}\sum_{m \geq 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1} \frac{(-1)^m}{2m+1} \\ &=\left(\sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1} \right)^2. \end{align*} The interchanging of sum and integral done here can be justified by the Dominated Convergence Theorem.

Now, we make the substitution $x \mapsto 1/x,$ and $y \mapsto 1/y$ to $I,$ resulting in \begin{align*} I &= \int_{1}^{\infty}\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(1+x^2)(1+y^2)} \ dy \ dx, \end{align*} This implies \begin{align*} I &= \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(1+x^2)(1+y^2)} \ dy \ dx. \end{align*} Make another substitution $y=tx$ with $dy = x \ dt$ to see \begin{align*} I &= \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x}{(1+x^2)(1+t^2x^2)} \ dt \ dx \\ &=\frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{x}{(1+x^2)(1+t^2x^2)} \ dx \ dt, \end{align*} in which the interchanging of the integral is justified by Tonelli's Theorem. Now, using the partial fractions identity, $$\frac{x}{(1+x^2)(1+t^2x^2)} = \frac{2 x}{\left(2-2 t^2\right) \left(x^2+1\right)}-\frac{2 t^2 x}{\left(2-2 t^2\right) \left(t^2 x^2+1\right)},$$ and integrating with respect to $x,$ we get \begin{align*} I &= \frac{1}{4}\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt. \end{align*} Now, observe \begin{align*} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt + \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt= \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt. \end{align*} We see that \begin{align*} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt &= \int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt \end{align*} by making a change of variables $t \mapsto 1/t$ on the second integral. Thus, \begin{align*} I &= \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} \ dt. \end{align*} Now, convert the integrand into a geometric series \begin{align*} \frac{\log(t)}{t^2-1} &= - \sum_{n \geq 0} \log(t) t^{2n}, \quad t \in (0,1), \end{align*} and we see that \begin{align*} I &= -\frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{1} \sum_{n \geq 0} \log(t) t^{2n} \ dt \\ &= -\frac{1}{2} \sum_{n \geq 0} \int_{0}^{1} \log(t) t^{2n} \ dt \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}, \end{align*} in which the interchanging of sum and integral is justified by Beppo Levi's Monotone Convergence Theorem. Observing that \begin{align*} \sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \frac{1}{n^2} &= \sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \frac{1}{(2n)^2}+\sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2} \\ &= \frac{1}{4}\sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \frac{1}{n^2}+\sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{1}{(2n+1)^2}, \end{align*} we find \begin{align*} I &= \frac{3}{8} \sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \frac{1}{n^2}. \end{align*} Hence, we have $$\left(\sum_{n \geq 0} \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)}\right)^2 = \frac{3}{8} \sum_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \frac{1}{n^2}.$$

Remark For those that may be interested, these types of integral calculations to evaluate series may be found in my joint paper with Daniele Ritelli, "Evaluation of harmonic sums with integrals", Q. Appl. Math. 76, No. 3, 577-600 (2018), MR3805043, Zbl 1397.40001.

21

I found a proof relying on some results from number theory, which hopefully fits your requirements


Claim:

$$ \left(\sum_{n \geq 1}\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}\right)^2=\frac{3}{8}\sum_{n\geq1}\frac{1}{n^2} $$ We define

  • $\chi_l(n)$ as the l'th Dirichlet character $\text{mod}\,4$,
  • $L(\chi,s)\equiv\sum_{n\geq1}\tfrac{\chi(n)}{n^s}$ is a Dirichlet-$L$ sum,
  • $\zeta(s,q)\equiv\sum_{n\geq0}\tfrac{1}{(n+q)^s}$ is a Hurwitz zeta function ($q=1$ gives Riemanns $\zeta(s)$).

Now we recognize that the orignal problem can be reformulated as follows

$$ L^2(1,\chi_1)=\frac{1}{2}L(2,\chi_0) \label{1}\tag{$*$} $$ Proof:
By virtue of the identity (this holds for general characters $\text{mod}\,\,a $) $$ L(\chi,s)=\sum_{b\leq a}\chi(b)\zeta\left(s,\frac ba\right) $$ and the explicit values of the character table we get for the left hand side of \eqref{1} $$ \frac{1}{16}\left(\zeta\big(1,\tfrac{1}{4}\big)-\zeta\big(1,\tfrac{3}{4}\big)\right)^2 $$

where the limit $s\rightarrow 1$ is implicitly taken. By the Stieltjes expansion of the Hurwitz Zeta function this equal to

$$ \frac{1}{16}\big(\psi_0(1/4)-\psi_0(3/4)\big)^2=\frac{\pi^2}{16}\cot^2\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) \label{2}\tag{${**}$} $$

where the equality is a consequence of the reflection formula for the Polygamma function $\psi_n(z)$.

On the other hand, for the rhs of \eqref{1} we can write by the nearly the same token (here no limiting procedure is necessary)

$$ \frac{1}{2\cdot16}\big(\psi_1(1/4)+\psi_1(3/4)\big)=\frac{\pi^2}{2\cdot16}\frac{1}{\sin^2(\frac{\pi}4)}.\label{3}\tag{${*\!*\!*}$} $$

Now since $\cos^2(\frac{\pi}{4})=\frac{1}{2}$, \eqref{2}=\eqref{3} and therefore \eqref{1} is proven.


Since I'm a theoretical physicist my knowledge of number theory is close to zero. I guess a more experienced person could conclude here much faster using some general theorems of $L$-functions or Dirichlet convolution.

tired
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