If $m,n\in\mathbb N, m<n, z=\frac{m}{n}, q\ge 2$, the inequality $0<(za-1)a^{q-1}<1$ has solution $a\in\mathbb N$.
Then the solution to the inequality above is unique.
The question is simple: how to prove the statement above?
I am currently studying
Daniel D. Bonar & Michael Khoury Jr. Real Infinite Series. Classroom Resource Materials. The Mathematical Association of America, $2006$. isbn: $0883857456$.
The problem above is here: P.1, P.2.
The book did give a proof to the statement at beginning, as a lemma to that problem in the book.
The book said (I use $q$ instead of $e$ in the book) "$\frac{n}{b}<m\le m(b-a)<\frac{n}{a^{q-1}}$ implies a contradiction", but how? And, how to prove $m(b-a)<\frac{n}{a^{q-1}}$?
What I have thought:
If $a^{q-1}\in\mathbb Z$ again and $q-1>1$, then there may be a contradiction since there are just finite many integer between $a$ and $b$, (similar to proof by infinite descent). But well... I think I thought too much. It just doesn't work.
And I back to the problem itself and try, if $a<b$ are natural numbers satisfying the inequality, \begin{align*} 0<(za-1)a^{q-1}&<(zb-1)b^{q-1}<1\\ 0<(ma-n)a^{q-1}&<(mb-n)b^{q-1}<n\\ 0<ma^q-na^{q-1}&<mb^q-nb^{q-1}<n\\ n(b^{q-1}-a^{q-1})&<m(b^q-a^q)\\ z&>\frac{b^{q-1}-a^{q-1}}{b^q-a^q} \end{align*} But it doesn't seem to be constructive.
I would like a proof to the statement at beginning. New proofs are good, in case there are, but I would like, if possible, someone telling me how the arguments in the book flow.