I was trying to solve this problem with a friend but we got stuck.
TRIAL
We claimed that the series does not converge uniformly which implies that it is not uniformly Cauchy, i.e., $\exists\,\epsilon_0>0$ such that $\forall\,k\in \Bbb{N},\,\exists\,n_k,m_k\geq k,\;\exists \,x_k\subset [0,\infty)$ such that \begin{align}\left|s_{n_k}(x_k)- s_{m_k}(x_k)\right|\geq \epsilon_0\end{align}
Now, let $k\in \Bbb{N}$ be given. Take $n_k=k,\,m_k=k+1,\;x_k=\frac{1}{k+1}\subset [0,\infty)$ and $\epsilon_0 \overset{?}{=}.$ Then, \begin{align}\left|s_{n_k}(x_k)- s_{m_k}(x_k)\right|&=\left| \sum^{n_k}_{i=1}x_k e^{-i x_k}-\sum^{m_k}_{i=1}x_k e^{-i x_k}\right|\\&=\left| x_k e^{-(k+1) x_k}\right|\\&=\left| \frac{1}{k+1} e^{-(k+1) \frac{1}{k+1}}\right|\\&=\left| \frac{1}{k+1} e^{-1}\right|\end{align} I'm stuck at this point. Can anyone help out? Thanks!