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I'm trying to understand how integration arose out of Leibniz's work on sequences and series. I've asked over at HSM, but the substance of the question is more maths than history of maths.

I understand that integration began as a form of summation. Indeed, $\int$ and $\sum$ are both 'S' for 'sum' or 'summation'. Therefore I expect that the sum of a sequence and the integral of the corresponding algebraic expression should agree. But consider the following.

Given $y=x$:

from Cavalieri's Quadrature Formula it follows that $$\int y\;dx = \frac{x^2}{2}+c$$

but by summation (I used trial and error) it appears that

$$\sum_{y=0}^x y = \frac{x^2+x}{2}$$

Why don't they agree?

Edited for clarity.

Second edit: With some prompting from the answerers I think I've got the answer I was looking for. The summation is an upper bound of the integral. A corresponding lower bound would be given by $\frac{x^2-x}{2}$. Then the familiar process of letting x go to 0 brings the bounds together, producing the integral.

mjc
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    Welcome to MSE! Can you provide some background for your question? You’re making several mistakes. First by mixing variables for integral bounds and integral variable.Second Cavalieri’s formula is not what you wrote. Third why would the two value agree ? – mathcounterexamples.net Aug 15 '19 at 08:08
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    Fourth, the summation is wrong. – Gerry Myerson Aug 15 '19 at 08:12
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    Hello both, thanks for the reply.

    The background is that I'm trying to understand the basis of calculus as it arose from Leibniz's work with sequences and series; I considered posting the question on HSM.

    The first formula is meant to be a result of CQF rather than a statement of it.

    I expect something like these two formulas to agree because I understand that integration is a form of summation, with the integration sign and the capital sigma both being s's standing for 'sum' or 'summation'.

    You're right, I mis-stated the summation; the $x^2$ should be $\frac{x^2}{2}$

    – mjc Aug 15 '19 at 09:55
  • If you're interested in how integration arose out of Leibniz's work, it seems to me you'd want to know how Leibniz actually did things, and not how some modern-day mathematician might do things. That is, it seems to me this is completely a history-of-math question, despite your apparent misconception that historians of mathematics do not do mathematics. The question says you asked at HSM, but your comment says you only considered posting the question; what actually happened? – David K Aug 15 '19 at 11:36
  • My primary interest is in understanding the calculus. I take historical study as a strategy for pursuing that. Having looked into Leibniz's methods a little, I now want to test my understanding of how it applies to the modern form of the calculus, hence this question. I made a post in HSM after the comment and before the edit to the OP. I don't have the misconception you attribute to me; by "more maths than history of maths" I mean that I think the historical element is not primary here, so general mathematicians are my first port of call. – mjc Aug 15 '19 at 12:30

1 Answers1

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Here I am trying to show why the summation expression and the integration expression are different.

$$\sum_{y=1}^x y = \frac{x^2+x}{2}$$ The above summation produces an equation to calculate a value representing the sum of integers $(1,2,...,x)$.

The following integration produces a function, an anti-derivative, since it is not a bounded integral. Given $y=f(x)=x$: $$\int x\;dx = \frac{x^2}{2}+c$$

Note that $c$ is not determined (and can't be determined from just this information).

The above expression tells that: $$\frac{d}{dx}\left(\frac{x^2}{2}+c\right)=x$$

At this point, we can see why the two expressions don't yield the same result. They address different concepts completely.

You can use bounded-integral to calculate the area under a curve (or intersection area of curves). In this case you get a constant function that represents the value of the area under the function curve in arbitrary square units.

As an example consider:

$$\int _1^3\:x\:dx=4$$

The concept of summation and bounded integral are related. Area under the curve could be computed approximately if you divide the curve into rectangles, with an equal base. In this case the higth would be $f(x)$.

The approximate area would be (with base=1, and height $f(x)=x$)

$$\sum _{x=1}^{3\:}f(x).base=\sum _{x=1}^{3\:}x.1=6$$

The obtained area using this method is a bad approximation of the area. This is because the base of 1 is so large and you can see that part of the rectangle will be above $f(x)$ for all values of $x$. The value of the bound integral tends to come closer to the summation value as you make the base infinitely small, hence getting very large of vertical rectangles.

enter image description here

A more general view:

enter image description here

A better method to approximate the area following a close concept is to use the Trapezoidal Rule. There are much better methods still.

Figure Reference: Introduction to Integration

NoChance
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  • Thanks for the reply. I think I've got what I was looking for. Taking your first graph as an example, the reason why the summation has the additional $\frac{x}{2}$ compared to the integration is to represent the excess triangles above the line, which are not present in the perfectly smooth integration. – mjc Aug 15 '19 at 11:03
  • @mjc, Please read my answer again. Summation has "noting to do" with unbounded integration. Summation could be used to estimate bounded integrals in many cases with poor result. The difference between the summation value and the bounded integration value exist because the rectangles, no matter how many of them, are finite whereas the number of points in the x-axis between the bounds of integral are not. The area of the shapes above the function curve, could not be accounted for in summation. – NoChance Aug 15 '19 at 11:07
  • I disagree that summation has nothing to do with integration. Historically, $\int$ is Leibniz's cursive S for 'summation', and $\sum$ is Greek sigma, also S for 'summation'. My understanding is that integration is summation as the difference between terms approaches 0 and the number of terms approaches $\infty$, which I think agrees exactly with your point, "The difference between the summation value and the bounded integration value exist because the rectangles, no matter how many of them, are finite whereas the number of points in the x-axis between the bounds of integral are not". – mjc Aug 15 '19 at 11:20
  • I think what we've found is that the summation we've considered gives an upper bound to the integral, with $\frac{x^2-x}{2}$ giving the lower bound. – mjc Aug 15 '19 at 11:23
  • The word integration refers to 2 very different concepts. The first is the unbounded integration and the second is the bounded integration. They both use similar notation to some extent but the two integral notations mean very different thing. Most Calculus book will discuss this in details. For more see: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_calculus – NoChance Aug 15 '19 at 11:29
  • I'll have a think about that. Thanks again for your help. – mjc Aug 15 '19 at 11:34
  • Thanks for the interesting discussion. – NoChance Aug 15 '19 at 11:45