I've seen this stated in a few places.
If $$\vartheta(x) = \sum_{p\le{x}} \log (p) \qquad \psi(x) = \sum_{m=1}^{\infty}\vartheta\left(\sqrt[m]{x}\right)$$ Then $$\log(x!) = \sum_{m=1}^{\infty} \psi\left(\frac{x}{m}\right).$$
It is used by Ramanujan here. It is used by Jitsuro Nagura here.
Can anyone provide a proof for why it is true or provide a link to a proof?
Thanks very much.