It is standard practice to show $$ SU(n) \subset SO(2n). $$
However, some post Is $SU(n) \subset \text{Spin}(2n)$? suggests that $\DeclareMathOperator\Spin{Spin}$ $$ SU(n) \subset \Spin(2n) (?). $$
I am very puzzled, because $1 \to \mathbb{Z}/2 \to \Spin(2n)\to SO(2n) \to 1$, so $SO(2n) \not \subset \Spin(2n) $. The $ SO(2n) $ is only a quotient group not a normal subgroup.
Is this answer $SU(n) \subset \Spin(2n)$ true of false, Is $SU(n) \subset \text{Spin}(2n)$?? I thought $SU(n) \not\subset \Spin(2n)$
However, is it possible to show that $$ SU(n) \times U(1) \subset \frac{\Spin(2n) \times \Spin(2)}{\mathbb{Z}/2}= \frac{\Spin(2n) \times U(1)}{\mathbb{Z}/2}? $$
$$ SU(n) \times SU(2) \subset \frac{\Spin(2n) \times \Spin(3)}{\mathbb{Z}/2}=\frac{\Spin(2n) \times SU(2)}{\mathbb{Z}/2}? $$ precisely?