I've heard people make the argument that:
$\mathsf{ZFC}$ suffices as a foundations of mathematics because almost all theorems in the mathematics literature can be proven using $\mathsf{ZFC}$, so long as they're suitably translated into the language of sets.
Now let $\mathrm{Con}(\mathsf{ZFC})$ denote the statement that $\mathsf{ZFC}$ is consistent, formalized in the language of $\mathsf{ZFC}$. By Godel's second incompleteness theorem, if $\mathsf{ZFC}$ is consistent, then so too is $\mathsf{ZFC}+\neg\mathrm{Con}(\mathsf{ZFC})$.
Observe also that the above argument works for $\mathsf{ZFC}+\neg\mathrm{Con}(\mathsf{ZFC})$.
Thus, would $\mathsf{ZFC}+\neg\mathrm{Con}(\mathsf{ZFC})$ suffice as a foundations? And if so, why is nobody using it? (okay, clearly there are psychological reasons why nobody is using it - but are there deeper reasons?)