One can write the Taylor remainder as an integral :
$$
f(a+x) -\sum_{j=0}^{k} \frac {f^{(j)}(a)x^{j}}{j!}=
\int_{a}^{a+x} \frac{(a+x-t)^k}{k!} f^{(k+1)}(t)dt \tag{1}
$$
Taking $f(x)={\sf log}(x)$ and $a=1$, this yields
$$
R_{0,k}(x)={\sf log}(x)-\Bigg(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} (-1)^{n+1} \frac{x^n}{n}\Bigg)=
(-1)^{k} \int_{1}^{1+x} \left(\frac{1+x-t}{t}\right)^k dt \tag{2}
$$
When $t$ is between $1$ and $1+x$, we have
$$
\bigg| \frac{1+x-t}{t} \bigg| \leq |x| \tag{3}
$$
And hence
$$
|R_0(x)| \leq \int_{1}^{1+x} \left(\frac{|1+x-t|}{|t|}\right)^k dt
\leq \int_{1}^{1+x} |x|^{k} dt =|x|^{k+1} \tag{4}
$$
When $|x| \lt 1$, this tends to zero when $k\to \infty$ and we are
done. The only case left is $x=1$. Then
$$
R_{0,k}(1)= \int_{1}^{2} \left(\frac{2-t}{t}\right)^k dt \tag{5}
$$
Putting $t=\frac{2}{z+1}$, we see that
$$
R_{0,k}(1)= 2\int_{0}^{1} \frac{z^k}{(z+1)^2} dz
\leq 2\int_{0}^{1} z^k dz =\frac{2}{k+1}
\tag{6}
$$
This still converges to zero, which concludes the proof.