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Assume we have a single variable function $f(t)$ and complex numbers $a$ and $\zeta$. The Taylor series of $f(t)$ about $\zeta$ would be: $$ f(t) = f(\zeta) + f^{(1)}(\zeta)(t-\zeta) + \frac{f^{(2)}(\zeta)}{2!}(t-\zeta)^2 + \frac{f^{(3)}(\zeta)}{3!}(t-\zeta)^3 \cdots $$

Now let $t \to t+a$, I am trying to expand $f(t+a)$ about the variable $t$; which would be: $$ f(t+a) = f(t) + f^{(1)}(t)(a) + \frac{f^{(2)}(t)}{2!}(a)^2 + \frac{f^{(3)}(t)}{3!}(a)^3 \cdots + \frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}(a)^n$$ However, I am not sure I can do this? I am asking because $t$ is a variable and not a constant complex number... That being said, doing a Taylor series expansion of $f(t)$ about $t$ would be: $$ f(t) = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}(t-t)^n = f(t)$$ which seems to work...

innating
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  • After doing some more research on this I believe the answer should be yes—although I am still not 100% sure—so I am still inviting answers. (My soure is the first equation here.) – innating Sep 20 '21 at 05:04

1 Answers1

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I suggest you stop thinking in terms of "variables", and stop using the common, but poor language, "a single variable function $f(t)$". The name of the function is $f$; that's it, a single letter is used to denote the function. $f(t)$ is a particular complex number you get by evaluating the function $f$ on the complex number $t\in \text{domain}(f)$. The letters you decide to use does not affect mathematics.

If you want to "Taylor expand $f$ about a complex number $t\in\text{domain}(f)$", then you can write any of the following equivalent statements

for all $a\in\Bbb{C}$ sufficiently close to $0$, $f(t+a)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}a^n$.

or

for all $\sharp \in\Bbb{C}$ sufficiently close to $0$, $f(t+\sharp)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}\sharp^n$.

or

for all $\ddot{\smile} \in\Bbb{C}$ sufficiently close to $0$, $f(t+\ddot{\smile})=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}\ddot{\smile}^n$.

or

for all $z \in\Bbb{C}$ sufficiently close to $t$, $f(z)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}(z-t)^n$.

or

for all $w \in\Bbb{C}$ sufficiently close to $t$, $f(w)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}(w-t)^n$.

or

for all $\zeta \in\Bbb{C}$ sufficiently close to $t$, $f(\zeta)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}(\zeta-t)^n$.

I'm going to repeat this once again. The particular letters/symbols used do not matter! What matters is that you're clear on the distinction between a function and its values when evaluated at a point, and that you're clear with what is the operating quantifier in a given statement (eg I always mention "for all blablabla").

If this is still not clear, I suggest you take a look at the slightly related question Why can arbitrary functions be substituted into Taylor Series? where I beat to death the meaning of plugging in something into a function.

peek-a-boo
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  • Thank you, I will take that as a yes. Us physics majors are knows for our poor choice of words when it comes to mathematics haha. In this case those poor choice of words turned out to be fatal to my understanding! – innating Sep 20 '21 at 05:12
  • @innating right, the answer to your bolded question is "yes you can do this". Also, the equation $f(t)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(t)}{n!}(t-t)^n=f(t)$ is TRIVIALLY true, because all but the first term in the series are $0$, and this equality had nothing to do with Taylor series/Taylor's theorem; it's just by definition of a series where all but one term vanishes. – peek-a-boo Sep 20 '21 at 05:15