Let $M$ be a symplectic manifold, why is the following sequence exact? $$0\to \mathbb{R} \to C^\infty (M)\to A\to 0$$ Here $A$ is the set of global Hamiltonian vector fields.
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1We can't tell you if it is exact or not if you don't tell us what the middle two maps are. I'm guessing the first is inclusion of the constant functions ($M$ is presumably connected) and the second is $f \mapsto X_f$? – Henry T. Horton Jun 30 '13 at 04:15
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Yes, exactly. But why $M$ should be connected? – Matias Jun 30 '13 at 09:16
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1Hint: let $\phi: C^{\infty}(M)\rightarrow A$ be $f\mapsto \phi(f)=X_f$. The only non trivial part of your statement to prove is $\ker \phi=\mathbb R$. In other words, $X_f(g)={f,g}=\omega(X_f,X_g)=0$ for all $g$ implies $f$ constant. You can express $X_f$, $X_g$ in local coordinates an arrive at the result. – Avitus Jun 30 '13 at 09:49
1 Answers
Hint: let $\phi:C^{\infty}(M)\rightarrow A$ be $f\mapsto \phi(f)=X_f$. The only non trivial part of your statement to prove is $\ker\phi=\mathbb R$. In other words, $X_f(g)=\{f,g\}=0$ for all $g$ implies $f$ constant. Here we consider $M$ to be connected.
Let $\omega=dq^i\wedge dp_i$ be the symplectic 2-form s and
$$X_f=\frac{\partial f}{\partial p_i}\frac{\partial}{\partial q^i}- \frac{\partial f}{\partial q^i}\frac{\partial}{\partial p_i}$$
be the Hamiltonian vector field $X_f$, both in canonical coordinate.
We want to prove that $X_f(g)=\{f,g\}=0$ for all $g\in C^{\infty}(M)$ implies $f$ constant. Then
$$X_f(g)=\{f,g\}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial p_i}\frac{\partial g}{\partial q^i}- \frac{\partial f}{\partial q^i}\frac{\partial g}{\partial p_i}=0~~ (*) $$ for all $g$ implies
$$\frac{\partial f}{\partial p_i}=\frac{\partial f}{\partial q^i}=0,$$
for all $i=1,\dots,2n$. We chose $g=q^j$ and $g=p_j$ for all $j$'s in (*). The statement follows.
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1@h.jolany You are welcome. $M$ is supposed to be connected. This implies that a function with all vanishing derivatives is constant (i.e. each function specifies a unique real number $\mathbb R$). If $M$ admitted multiple connected components then a function with vanishing derivatives would be constant on each connected component, with possibly different values on each of them, though. – Avitus Jun 30 '13 at 10:09
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