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I am studying delayed DE's, and while I've solved the following equation $$y'(t) = y(t-1)$$ $$y[-1,0] = y_0$$ where $y_0$ is a constant by using the method of steps to get $$y(t) = \sum y_0\frac{t^n}{n!} + c$$ on $[n,n+1]$, I'm trying to now solve this using a Laplace transform. (Also, could someone confirm if the above is the correct answer? I remember following online notes, but it was a while ago, and I don't remember if this was supposed to be the final solution, since it's only defined on a specific interval?)

Anyway, until now, I've worked out the following by applying a Laplace transform to both sides of the equation. (I'll be skipping some more simple steps while writing this down though)

$$\int_0^\infty e^{-st}y'(t)dt = \int_0^\infty e^{-st} y(t-1)dt$$ $$sY(s) - Y(0) = \int_{-1}^\infty e^{-s(\tau+1)} y(\tau)d\tau$$ where $Y(s) = \mathcal{L}\{y(t)\}$, and $t-1 = \tau$.

I then continue and get

$$sY(s) - y_0 = e^{-s}\bigg[\int_{-1}^0 e^{-s\tau} y(\tau)d\tau + \int_{0}^\infty e^{-s\tau} y(\tau)d\tau \bigg]$$

$$sY(s) - y_0 = e^{-s}\bigg[y(\tau)\frac{e^{-s\tau}}{-s}\bigg|^0_{-1} + \frac{1}{s}\int_{-1}^{0} y'(\tau)e^{-s\tau}d\tau +Y(s)\bigg]$$

where I used integration by parts to evaluate the first integral in the upper equation that's from $-1$ to $0$. This is where I'm stuck, because in the last equation, while I can evaluate the first part, and obviously simplify the rest of the equation, I'm not sure how to solve the middle integral. I tried letting it be equal to a random integral $I$ to use integration by parts again and get a value, but I ended up with a $0=0$ equation lol. I might be fuzzy on my calculus skills, so can someone help me evaluate that center integral? Or basically just this following integral overall $$\int_{-1}^0 e^{-s\tau} y(\tau)d\tau$$

I feel like it's probably something really simple I'm missing, but I would be super helpful if someone could help point it out. Thank you!!

Mittens
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    Your history condition says that on that segment $y(t)=y_0$ is constant, so also $y'=0$. This makes this integral easy to evaluate. – Lutz Lehmann Jan 22 '22 at 19:59
  • is $y(t)$ a causal function? Cause if that's so, $y(t-1)$ could be written as $y(t-1)H(t-1)$ and use the second shift theorem – Luciano Jan 22 '22 at 20:08
  • @LutzLehmann oh my god, I did not realize that at all! That would just mean my center integral evaluates out to zero, right? And I'd just use the first part of the integration by parts? That's amazing honestly, I'll try to see if I get to an answer with using the transform like this and then inverting it. Thanks! – Applesauce44 Jan 22 '22 at 21:03
  • @Luciano, so I'm not completely sure if it's a causal function? In fact, I'm personally not very sure what causal functions are, but would this Heaviside function not just get rid of the function where $t<1$? Since the equation does have a specified value at $[-1,0]$ for example, does that make a difference? – Applesauce44 Jan 22 '22 at 21:09

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I have to make a necessary assumption in order to solve your differential equation using Laplace transform, that being $y(t)$ is a causal function, meaning we don't care about its history ($y=0$ if $t<0$). That being said, if we shift the function 1 unit to the right, it would still be zero for $t<1$, and the equation turns to: $$y'(t)=y(t-1)H(t-1)$$ where $H(t)$ is the Heaviside or unit step function.

Taking Laplace transforms:

$$sY(s)-y_0 = Y(s)e^{-s}$$ $$sY(s)-Y(s)e^{-s}=y_0 $$ $$(s-e^{-s})Y(s)=y_0 $$ $$Y(s) = \frac{y_0}{s-e^{-s}} = \frac{y_0}{s} \; \frac{1}{1-\frac{e^{-s}}{s}} = \frac{y_0}{s} \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \left( \frac{e^{-s}}{s} \right)^n = y_0 \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{e^{-ns}}{s^{n+1}} $$

if $\left| \frac{e^{-s}}{s} \right|<1$

Now there's another assumption to make, and that is the inverse Laplace of a series is the series of the inverse Laplace (operator and series commute). It's not obvious, hard to prove, but widely used to solve for example, RLC circuits with periodic voltage sources.

Then, $$\mathcal{L}^{-1} \left\{ \frac{e^{-ns}}{s^{n+1}} \right\} = \mathcal{L}^{-1} \left\{ \frac{1}{n!} \frac{n!}{s^{n+1}} e^{-ns} \right\} = \frac{1}{n!} \mathcal{L}^{-1} \left. \left\{ \frac{n!}{s^{n+1}} \right\} \right|_{t-n} H(t-n) = \frac{(t-n)^{n}}{n!} H(t-n)$$

Resulting in

$$y(t) = y_0 \sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} \frac{(t-n)^{n}}{n!} H(t-n) = y_0 \left[ H(t) +(t-1)H(t-1) + \frac{1}{2} (t-2)^2 H(t-2) +...\right]$$

Where you can compute by hand or with GeoGebra that its derivative is a shifted version of itself. Here we've found a solution of the delayed differential equation restricting the solution to be causal, a requirement to use Laplace transforms in the first place.

Luciano
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    This is actually a really interesting solution. So I'm not sure how to justify that this is a causal function, but the rest of it does seem very correct (and almost matches the answer that I got for the equation using the method of steps), so this is very cool. I'm going to try to solve it myself by using this argument and see what I get, but thank you so much for this! This is very helpful! – Applesauce44 Jan 22 '22 at 21:13