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I have been studying the polylogarithm function and came across its relation with Bernoulli polynomials, as Wikipedia site asserts:

For positive integer polylogarithm orders $s$, the Hurwitz zeta function $\zeta(1−s, x)$ reduces to Bernoulli polynomials, $\zeta(1−n, x) = −B_n(x) / n$, and Jonquière's inversion formula for $n = 1, 2, 3, …$ becomes: $$Li_n(e^{2\pi ix}) + (-1)^n Li_n(e^{-2\pi ix}) = -\frac{(2\pi i)^n}{n!} B_n(x)$$ where again $0 \leq Re(x) < 1$ if $Im(x) \geq 0$, and $0 < Re(x) \leq 1$ if $Im(x) < 0$.

While I understand the formula itself and that the Hurwitz zeta function reduces to the Bernoulli polynomials for natural orders $s$, I am having trouble understanding how to obtain it. I have referred to the following sources:

Wikipedia - Polylogarithm

MathWorld - Jonquière's Relation

However, I still do not understand how to prove this formula. Could someone please explain, in detail, how is it obtained? Any insights or references to textbooks/research papers that provide a detailed derivation would be greatly appreciated.

Dr Potato
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  • What is the value of the right side of $$Li_n(e^{2\pi ix}) + (-1)^n Li_n(e^{-2\pi ix}) = -\frac{(2\pi i)^n}{n!} B_n(x)$$ If we loop $j$ times around the origin (in other words: the real part of $x$ is a natural number greater than $1$).

    The branch cut of the polylogarithm for its argument $e^{2\pi i(x+j)}$ increases as discussed in https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4605477/622884 therefore in the right side $B_n(\dot)$ should equal something specific, extending the constraint "$0 \leq Re(x) < 1$ if $Im(x) \geq 0$, and $0 < Re(x) \leq 1$ if $Im(x) < 0$".

    Any clue?

    – Dr Potato Oct 05 '24 at 23:21
  • To keep the relations real you may use Clausen functions and obtain these relations. – Raymond Manzoni Jul 08 '25 at 15:01

2 Answers2

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See the Wikipedia page Hurwitz zeta function, which states the result under the name "Hurwitz's formula" as: $$ \zeta(1-s,a) = \frac{\Gamma(s)}{(2\pi)^s} \left( e^{-\pi i s/2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{e^{2\pi ina}}{n^s} + e^{\pi i s/2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{e^{-2\pi ina}}{n^s} \right) $$ This becomes the formula stated in the question, after taking $s$ to be a positive integer, renaming variables, and rearranging.

The page cites references to a number of books and articles where you can take your pick among several possible proofs:

Hurwitz's formula has a variety of different proofs. [See the references in Section 4 of Kanemitsu et al. 2017.] One proof uses the contour integration representation along with the residue theorem. [Apostol, Introduction to analytic number theory, Theorem 12.6][Whittaker and Watson, A Course Of Modern Analysis 4th ed., Section 13.15] A second proof uses a theta function identity, or equivalently Poisson summation. [Fine 1951] These proofs are analogous to the two proofs of the functional equation for the Riemann zeta function in Riemann's 1859 paper. Another proof of the Hurwitz formula uses Euler–Maclaurin summation to express the Hurwitz zeta function as an integral $$ \zeta(s,a) = s \int_{-a}^\infty \frac{\lfloor x \rfloor - x + \frac{1}{2}}{(x+a)^{s+1}} dx $$ ($−1 < Re(s) < 0$ and $0 < a \le 1$) and then expanding the numerator as a Fourier series. [Berndt 1972]

  • Is there a direct proof not involving Hurwitz's zeta function formula/functional equation? I mean, a direct one for the special case where $s$ is a natural number? – Dr Potato Feb 21 '24 at 18:18
  • I wonder what is the value of the right side of $$Li_n(e^{2\pi ix}) + (-1)^n Li_n(e^{-2\pi ix}) = -\frac{(2\pi i)^n}{n!} B_n(x)$$ If we loop a natural, say, $j$ times around the origin (in other words: the real part of $x$ greater than $1$).

    The branch cut of the polylogarithm for its argument $e^{2\pi i(x+j)}$ increases as discussed in https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4605477/622884 therefore in the right side $B_n(\cdot)$ should equal something specific, extending the constraint "$0 \leq Re(x) < 1$ if $Im(x) \geq 0$, and $0 < Re(x) \leq 1$ if $Im(x) < 0$".

    Any clue?

    – Dr Potato Oct 05 '24 at 23:19
  • I posted it as a question, see https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4980824/622884 – Dr Potato Oct 06 '24 at 03:24
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This can be obtained by contour integration. Here's the sketch. Consider $x \in [0, 1)$ and the following function: $$f(z) = \frac{\pi \csc(\pi z) e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}}{z^{n}}$$ By Cauchy theorem on a circle $\gamma_{N+\frac{1}{2}}$ and since $\csc(\pi z)$ has a first order pole in every integer point we have: $$\oint_{\gamma_{N+\frac{1}{2}}}f(z)dz = \sum\limits_{\substack{k=-N\\k\neq0}}^N \underset{z=k}{\rm Res}f(z) + \underset{z=0}{\rm Res}f(z)$$ It turns out that $\pi \csc{(\pi z)} e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}$ is bounded and $\frac{1}{z^{n}}\underset{N\to\infty}{\rightarrow} 0$ on this circle, what yields that $$\oint_{\gamma_{N+\frac{1}{2}}}f(z)dz \underset{N\to\infty}{\rightarrow} 0$$ It's not hard to see that for $k \in \mathbb{Z} \ (k \neq 0)$ $$\underset{z=k}{\rm Res}\frac{\pi \csc{(\pi z)} e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}}{z^{n}} = \lim\limits_{z\to k} \frac{\pi (z-k)e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}}{\sin{(\pi z)}z^{n}} = \frac{(-1)^k e^{(2x-1)\pi i k}}{k^{n}} = \frac{e^{2\pi i x k}}{k^n}$$ What means that $$\sum\limits_{\substack{k=-\infty\\{k \neq 0}}}^\infty \frac{e^{2\pi i x k}}{k^n} = -\underset{z=0}{\rm Res}\frac{\pi \csc(\pi z) e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}}{z^{n}}$$

Now we notice that $$\sum\limits_{\substack{k=-\infty\\{k \neq 0}}}^\infty \frac{e^{2\pi i x k}}{k^{n}} = \sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \frac{e^{2\pi i x k}}{k^{n}} + (-1)^n\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \frac{e^{-2\pi i x k}}{k^{n}} = {\rm Li}_{n}(e^{2\pi i x}) + (-1)^n{\rm Li}_{n}(e^{-2\pi i x})$$ So we have $${\rm Li}_{n}(e^{2\pi i x}) + (-1)^n {\rm Li}_{n}(e^{-2\pi i x}) = -\underset{z=0}{\rm Res}\frac{\pi \csc(\pi z) e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}}{z^{n}}$$ Now we notice that $\frac{\pi \csc(\pi z) e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}}{z^{n}}$ has a pole of order $n+1$ in $z = 0$, so the residue is equal to the n-th coefficient in Taylor expansion of $\pi z \csc(\pi z) e^{(2x-1)\pi i z}$. That's where Bernoulli polynomials come from. By defenition $$\frac{te^{xt}}{e^t-1} = \sum\limits_{k=0}^\infty B_k(x)\frac{t^k}{k!}$$ Substituting $2\pi iz$ for $t$ we have $$\pi z\csc{(\pi z)}e^{(2x-1)\pi i z} = \sum\limits_{k=0}^\infty\frac{(2\pi i)^kB_{k}(x)}{k!}z^{k}$$ And there we have it! $${\rm Li}_{n}(e^{2\pi i x}) + (-1)^n {\rm Li}_{n}(e^{-2\pi i x}) = -\frac{(2\pi i)^nB_n(x)}{n!}$$ Now we can extend this result for non real values of x. Since ${\rm Li}_{n}(e^{2\pi i x})$ is analytical on a strip $\Re(x) \in (0, 1)$ and the identity is proved for $x \in (0, 1)$ by the Identity Theorem we can extend it for $\Re(x) \in (0, 1)$.

  • Give me some time to digest this proof! Given that you have a good understanding of the subject, could you please help me extend this formula for real part of $x$ beyond $[0,1)$? which means, for $x$ beyond the strip $0\leq \Re(x) < 1$? I already posted that particular question in comments to another answer here, so it is already linked to this one (https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4980824/622884). – Dr Potato Jul 08 '25 at 00:12
  • I've cleared countless mistakes in my proof, so now it seems to be true. What about the extension of the domain: actually there is no need to do so, just because $e^{2 \pi i x}$ has a period of 1. And since we've developed the formula for $\Re(x) \in [0, 1)$ (but my proof only gives for $\Re(x) \in (0, 1)$) on any other strip we are just evaluating the same right hand side. Or for $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ $$Li_{n}(e^{2 \pi i (x+k)}) + (-1)^n Li_{n}(e^{-2 \pi i (x+k)}) = -\frac{(2 \pi i)^n B_{n}(x)}{n!}$$ if you will. – Степан Самулевич Jul 08 '25 at 16:59
  • I thought the same for several years until understood that for complex $z$ the polylogarithm $Li_s(z)$ has non-trivial monodromy: At $z=1$ it has a branch point with the branch cut usually taken as $[1,\infty)$, displaying an interesting Riemann surface which actually happens to bring branch points at $z=0$ in other sheets. See https://math.stackexchange.com/q/4986171/622884 Moreover this relation of $Li_n(z)$ with the Bernoulli polynomials we are discussing is a special case of of Hurwitz formula as pointed out by @echinodermata , where it is easier to notice its branch point singularties. – Dr Potato Jul 09 '25 at 03:44
  • The function you are talking about is known as the "Periodic zeta function". The periodic zeta function and the polylogarithm are distinct mathematical functions with different definitions and applications. The periodic zeta function is defined using a Dirichlet series with periodic coefficients, while the polylogarithm is defined as a power series involving logarithms, despite sometimes taken as the same as in https://math.stackexchange.com/q/51489/622884

    The periodic zeta function may be related with the periodic Bernoulli numbers.

    – Dr Potato Jul 09 '25 at 03:54
  • Now I understand what you mean. I'm focused on computation, so I work with Dirichlet series. Actually I'm looking for generalization of this formulas (in my result there is some more connection to Bernoulli polynomials and zeta-function). The good news are that my proof still works for the original domain. – Степан Самулевич Jul 09 '25 at 11:03
  • Exactly. These type of formulas are restricted to open domains due to poles or branch cuts of the functions they relate. In this case the strip $0<\Re(x)<1$ hits a branch point where the polylogarithm is multivalued. This is easy to see from $Li_1(z)=\ln(1-z)$ which is multivalued, and then recursively building for positive $n$ degree $Li_n(z)$ as the iterated application of integration and division by $z$, which preserves the branch cut. – Dr Potato Jul 10 '25 at 00:01