3

Recently, I have been trying to learn about a concept called "Mixing Times" in Markov Chains (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Markov_chain_mixing_time). These are used to analyze how long it takes for a Markov Chain to reach its stationary distribution (provided it has one).

I have been reading about this (I found limited information) and it seems that Mixing Times in Markov Chains are closely tied to the second eigenvalue of the transition matrix.

I was curious as to why this is and thus tried to derive/fill in the gaps for some of this by mashing different references together along with my own attempts to blend them together.

For a layman like myself, there were many parts that I needed to expand. I will show my whole work and then show the side results at the end.


MAIN PART OF QUESTION

Begin with a discrete-time Markov chain with state space $S = \{1, 2, ..., n\}$ and transition matrix $P$. Remember that the transition matrix $P$ is stochastic, meaning: $$ \sum_{j=1}^n P_{ij} = 1 \text{ for all } i $$

Apparently, by the Perron-Frobenius theorem (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perron%E2%80%93Frobenius_theorem), $P$ has a largest eigenvalue $\lambda_1 = 1$, and all other eigenvalues have magnitude less than or equal to $1$: $$ 1 = \lambda_1 > |\lambda_2| \geq |\lambda_3| \geq \cdots \geq |\lambda_n| $$

Let $v_i$ and $w_i$ be the right and left eigenvectors of $P$ corresponding to $\lambda_i$. These satisfy: $$ Pv_i = \lambda_i v_i \text{ and } w_i^T P = \lambda_i w_i^T $$

The spectral decomposition of $P$ is: $$ P = \sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i v_i w_i^T $$

The stationary distribution $\pi$ satisfies (note the difference between to the power of $t$ and transpose): $$ \pi^T P = \pi^T $$

This means $\pi^T$ is the left eigenvector corresponding to $\lambda_1 = 1$.

Consider $P^t$, the $t$-step transition matrix: $$ P^t = (\sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i v_i w_i^T)^t = \sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T $$

We can separate the first term (corresponding to $\lambda_1 = 1$) from the rest (notice how the index in the sum changes): $$ P^t = v_1 w_1^T + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T $$

Note that $v_1$ is a column of ones (denoted as $\mathbf{1}$) and $w_1^T = \pi^T$, so: $$ P^t = \mathbf{1}\pi^T + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T $$

Now, let $p^t$ be the distribution after $t$ steps. We can write: $$ p^t = p^0 P^t = p^0 (\mathbf{1}\pi^T + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T) $$

Simplify: $$ p^t = \pi + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T $$

The error in distribution after $t$ steps is: $$ p^t - \pi = \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T $$

Taking the norm of both sides: $$ \|p^t - \pi\| \leq \sum_{i=2}^n |\lambda_i|^t \|p^0 v_i\| \|w_i\| $$

Since $|\lambda_2| \geq |\lambda_i|$ for $i > 2$, we can bound this by: $$ \|p^t - \pi\| \leq |\lambda_2|^t \sum_{i=2}^n \|p^0 v_i\| \|w_i\| $$

The sum is a constant independent of $t$, so we can write: $$ \|p^t - \pi\| \leq C |\lambda_2|^t $$ where $C = \sum_{i=2}^n \|p^0 v_i\| \|w_i\|$

We can see that $|\lambda_2|$ dominates the convergence behavior. As $t$ increases, $|\lambda_2|^t$ decays more slowly than $|\lambda_i|^t$ for $i > 2$, becoming the primary factor in determining how quickly $p^t$ approaches $\pi$.

The mixing time, which is roughly the time needed to get close to the stationary distribution, can be estimated by solving:

$$ C |\lambda_2|^t \approx \epsilon $$

Taking logarithms:

$$ t \approx \frac{\log(\epsilon/C)}{\log(|\lambda_2|)} \approx \frac{\text{constant}}{1 - |\lambda_2|} $$

Again, we can see that the mixing time/convergence is proportional to $\frac{1}{1 - |\lambda_2|}$.

CONCLUSION: This concludes the main part, beyond this I will try to show some of my algebra


1) Why the stationary distribution π is the left eigenvector corresponding to λ₁ = 1.

Stationary Distribution:

$$ \pi^T P = \pi^T $$

Compare this to the definition of a left eigenvector:

$$ w_i^T P = \lambda_i w_i^T $$

If we set $λᵢ = 1$ and $wᵢ = π$ in the eigenvector equation, we get:

$$ \pi^T P = 1 \cdot \pi^T $$

This is exactly the same as the equation defining the stationary distribution. Therefore, $π$ is a left eigenvector of $P$ with eigenvalue 1. We know from the Perron-Frobenius theorem that the largest eigenvalue of $P$ is $λ₁ = 1$. All other eigenvalues have magnitude less than or equal to $1$.

Since the stationary distribution corresponds to the eigenvalue $1$, and $1$ is the largest eigenvalue, we can conclude that the stationary distribution $π$ is specifically the left eigenvector corresponding to $λ₁ = 1$.


2) Logic for how we got $P^t$

We start with the spectral decomposition of P from step 5:

$$ P = \sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i v_i w_i^T $$

To compute $P^t$, we need to multiply $P$ by itself $t$ times. Here is what happens when we multiply $P$ by itself:

$$ P^2 = P \cdot P = (\sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i v_i w_i^T) \cdot (\sum_{j=1}^n \lambda_j v_j w_j^T) $$

When we multiply these sums, we get terms of the form:

$$ (\lambda_i v_i w_i^T) \cdot (\lambda_j v_j w_j^T) $$

Remember that eigenvectors is that they are orthonormal, i.e.:

$$ w_i^T v_j = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if } i = j \\ 0 & \text{if } i \neq j \end{cases} $$

Using this property, we can simplify the multiplication:

$$ (\lambda_i v_i w_i^T) \cdot (\lambda_j v_j w_j^T) = \lambda_i \lambda_j v_i (w_i^T v_j) w_j^T = \begin{cases} \lambda_i^2 v_i w_i^T & \text{if } i = j \\ 0 & \text{if } i \neq j \end{cases} $$

This means that when we multiply P by itself, we get:

$$ P^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i^2 v_i w_i^T $$

Thus, when we multiply P by itself t times, we get:

$$ P^t = \sum_{i=1}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T $$


3) Why $v₁$ is a column of $1$:

$P$ is a stochastic matrix, meaning:

$$ \sum_{j=1}^n P_{ij} = 1 \text{ for all } i $$

Consider the right eigenvector equation for $λ₁ = 1$:

$$ Pv_1 = 1 \cdot v_1 $$

If we assume $v₁$ is a column of $$:

$$ P = \begin{pmatrix} P_{11} & P_{12} & \cdots & P_{1n} \\ P_{21} & P_{22} & \cdots & P_{2n} \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ P_{n1} & P_{n2} & \cdots & P_{nn} \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ \vdots \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} $$

When we multiply:

$$ P = \begin{pmatrix} \sum_{j=1}^n P_{1j} \\ \sum_{j=1}^n P_{2j} \\ \vdots \\ \sum_{j=1}^n P_{nj} \end{pmatrix} $$

But since $P$ is stochastic, so each of these sums equals $1$:

$$ P = \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \\ \vdots \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} = $$

Thus, $P\cdot = $, which is exactly the eigenvector equation for $λ₁ = 1$.


4) Expansion of $P^t$

Start with the equation from step 10:

$$ p^t = p^0 P^t = p^0 (\mathbf{1}\pi^T + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T) $$

Distribute $p^0$ over the parentheses:

$$ p^t = p^0 \mathbf{1}\pi^T + p^0 \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T $$

Looking at $p^0 πᵀ$: $p^0$ is a row vector ($1$ × $n$) , $$ is a column vector of ones ($n × 1),πᵀ$ is a row vector ($1$ × $n$)

When we multiply $p^0 \cdot $, we get:

$$ p^0 \mathbf{1} = \sum_{j=1}^n p^0_j = 1 $$

This sum equals $1$ because $p^0$ is a probability distribution.

So, $p^0 πᵀ$ simplifies to just $πᵀ$:

$$ p^0 \mathbf{1}\pi^T = 1 \cdot \pi^T = \pi^T $$

For the second term, we can move the scalar $λᵢᵗ$ inside the parentheses:

$$ p^0 \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t v_i w_i^T = \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T $$

Note that $p^0 vᵢ$ is a scalar ($1$ × $n$ times $n × 1 = 1 × 1$).

Putting it all together:

$$ p^t = \pi^T + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T $$

If we write $p^t$ as a row vector, so we can transpose both sides:

$$ (p^t)^T = \pi + \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T $$


5) Application of the triangle inequality:

$$ p^t - \pi = \sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T $$

Take norm of both sides:

$$ \|p^t - \pi\| = \left\|\sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T\right\| $$

Here we use the triangle inequality, i.e. the norm of a sum is less than or equal to the sum of the norms:

$$ \|p^t - \pi\| = \left\|\sum_{i=2}^n \lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T\right\| \leq \sum_{i=2}^n \left\|\lambda_i^t (p^0 v_i) w_i^T\right\| $$

Here we use the properties of norms. For a scalar $a$ and vectors $x$ and $y$, we have $\|axy^T\| = |a| \|x\| \|y\|$. In our case, $a = \lambda_i^t$, $x = p^0 v_i$, and $y = w_i$. Applying this:

$$ \|p^t - \pi\| \leq \sum_{i=2}^n |\lambda_i|^t \|p^0 v_i\| \|w_i\| $$

The eigenvalues are constant, therefore $|\lambda_2|^t$ is a constant with respect to the summation index $i$, so we can factor it out:

$$ \|p^t - \pi\| \leq |\lambda_2|^t \sum_{i=2}^n \|p^0 v_i\| \|w_i\| $$

  • 1
    What exactly is your question? I see a lot of calculations but no actual question asked. Except "Why is the second eigenvalue important?" in the title, which is vague and unclear what you are looking for. – Nate Eldredge Oct 15 '24 at 03:54
  • @ Nate: My apologies, let me rephrase everything. I am trying to understand the logic behind why the second eigenvalue is used to determine the convergence/Mixing Times of Markov Chains (i.e. time to reach stationary distribution) – farrow90 Oct 15 '24 at 04:01
  • 2
    But you seem to have given the proof of that yourself. Are you wondering whether the proof is correct? Or are you looking for a more intuitive, rather than formal, explanation? – Nate Eldredge Oct 15 '24 at 04:04
  • @ Nate: thank you so much for your kind replies. Most of all, I am wondering if the work I have done is correct (I tagged "solution verification"). However, I would also be interested in hearing intuitive explanations as well. Thank you so much – farrow90 Oct 15 '24 at 04:07
  • As for the intuition part perhaps it is useful to consider an analogy to the mean and variance of a Bell Curve? If the distribution's mean is dominated by the behavior of $\lambda_1$, then deviations from that like $\lambda_1-\epsilon=\lambda_2$ should dominate behavior related to deviations from that mean. – DotCounter Oct 21 '24 at 18:22
  • You can consider 2 extreme cases. First one is when we have a matrix which converges in 1 step. The other one is a matrix which never converges ( ex: (0,1) in 1rst row, (1,0) in 2nd row), and then apply some small variations to those matrix. – Lourrran Oct 23 '24 at 15:20

1 Answers1

1

You fell in the usual pitfall when equating relaxation time and mixing time. It is true that relaxation time will determine the asympotic decay of the total variation. However, the regime of validity of this asymptotic exponential decay can have a a very late onset, possibly at times much larger than the relaxation time. Therefore, it is the preceding regime that will give the dominating contribution to mixing time and you will therefore grossly underestimate the mixing time.

In short, the technical steps of your proof are perfectly valid. However, in the final crucial step, you are assuming that the time $T$ such that $t>T\implies \|p^t-\pi\|\sim C|\lambda_2|^t$ is small compared to the relaxation time $t_r$: $T\ll t_r$. However, this is not always the case and you can have $t_m\sim T\gg t_r$. You can find some examples and rigorous bounds for example in these introductory lecture notes: Mixing times of Markov chains.

LPZ
  • 6,602
  • 1
    Thank you! I didn't understand what you meant about the pitfall. Can you please explain it again? Thank you! – farrow90 Oct 26 '24 at 17:51