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I want to prove that $${}_5F_4\left(\begin{array}{cc}n/2+1, n ,-x,-y,-z \\ n/2 ,x+n+1,y+n+1,z+n+1\end{array};1\right)=\frac{\Gamma(x+n+1)\Gamma(y+n+1)\Gamma(z+n+1)\Gamma(x+y+z+n+1)}{\Gamma(n+1)\Gamma(x+y+n+1)\Gamma(y+z+n+1)\Gamma(x+z+n+1)} \tag{1}$$


Approach: By Gauss Hypergeometric theorem, I realized that the right-hand side is equal to the fractions $$\frac{{}_2F_1(y,z;x+y+z+n+1;1)}{{}_2F_1(y,z;y+z+n+1;1)}\quad \quad \text{or} \quad \quad \frac{{}_2F_1(-x,-y;z+n+1;1)}{{}_2F_1(-x,-y;n+1;1)}$$ (I can swap $x,y,z$ and the fraction still remains true). This suggests that I should multiply both sides by the denominator and consider that product of hypergeometric functions.

Also, the products are a cyclic product of even number of elements at the denominator and odd number of elements on the numerator (This also appears in a more general form).

A corollary of $(1)$ is Dixon theorem. That could be proved by using Gauss Hypergeometric theorem. So I am very tempted to utilize it here.

  • Dougall's original proof for the more general version is available at https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/proceedings-of-the-edinburgh-mathematical-society/article/on-vandermondes-theorem-and-some-more-general-expansions/08C00E935E5D3139F9FEDED470EBDB20 – Paramanand Singh Nov 11 '24 at 18:06
  • @ParamanandSingh Amazing! The derivation utilizing symmetry is so clever. I just finished reading the proof, I'll type the answer in later. –  Nov 12 '24 at 10:34
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    Great, it is always nice to have the proofs of well known results available on math se. Waiting eagerly for your answer. – Paramanand Singh Nov 12 '24 at 14:35
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    A nice application of Dougall formula is available at https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3686262/72031 – Paramanand Singh Nov 12 '24 at 17:31

1 Answers1

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As @ParamanandSingh commented, Dougall's original paper is linked here. Since the paper is written in an old style, it is quite hard to read. This answer is a modification of Dougall's original proof. Considering that currently there are no proofs typed on the internet, I will present the proof as detailed as possible so various level of math learners could understand.


I will denote the rising and falling factorials as $$a^{\overline n}=a(a+1)\cdots(a+n-1) \quad ,\quad a^{\underline n}=a(a-1)\cdots(a-n+1)$$

Start by considering the function $$f(x,s)=\frac{(x+a+1)^{\overline s}(x+b+1)^{\overline s}(c+1)^{\overline s}(d+1)^{\overline s}}{(a+1)^{\overline s}(b+1)^{\overline s}(x+c+1)^{\overline s}(x+d+1)^{\overline s}}$$ where $s$ is a positive integer and constrain the expression to $a+b=c+d$. We can see the following properties of $f$

  1. $f$ is symmetric ($f(x,s)=f(s,x)$)
  2. $f(x,s)$ is invariant under $x\mapsto -x-c-d-s-1$

Dougall then expand the function $f$ as an infinite sum, in a way such that the expansion posses the above two properties. $$f(x,s)=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}A_k \frac{x^{\underline k}s^{\underline k} (x+c+d+s+1)^{\overline k}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline k}(s+c+1)^{\overline k}(x+d+s)^{\underline k}}$$ where $A_k$ are coefficients independent of $s$ and $x$ yet determined. To find $A_k$, we multiply both sides by $(x+d+1)^{\overline s}$ and take the limit as $x\to -d-1$

$$\begin{split}\lim_{x\to -d-1}\{(x+d+1)^{\overline s}f(x,s)\}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}A_k \lim_{x\to -d-1}\left\{\frac{x^{\underline k}s^{\underline k} (x+c+d+s+1)^{\overline k}(x+d+1)^{\overline s}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline k}(s+c+1)^{\overline k}(x+d+s)^{\underline k}}\right\} \end{split}$$ We note that since there is a $s^{\underline k}$ in the summand, the sum is null for $k>s$. now take a look at the expression $$\frac{(x+d+1)^{\overline s}}{(x+d+s)^{\underline k}}=\begin{cases}1,\quad s=k \\ (x+d+s-k)\cdots(x+d+1), \quad k<s\end{cases}$$ and notice that if we take the limit $x\to -d-1$ the expression is non zero only if $k=s$, so the limit reduces to $$\lim_{x\to -d-1}\{(x+d+1)^{\overline s}f(x,s)\}=A_s\lim_{x\to -d-1}\frac{x^{\underline s} s!(x+c+d+s+1)^{\overline s}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline s}(s+c+1)^{\overline s}}$$ $$=A_s\frac{(-d-1)^{\underline s}s!(s+c)^{\overline s}}{(c-d)^{\overline s}(s+c+1)^{\overline s}}=A_s\frac{(-1)^s(d+1)^{\overline s}s!(s+c)}{(c-d)^{\overline s}(2s+c)}$$ Where using the definition of $f$, the left hand side is equal to $$\lim_{x\to -d-1}\{(x+d+1)^{\overline s}f(x,s)\}=\frac{(c+1)^{\overline s}(d+1)^{\overline s}}{(a+1)^{\overline s}(b+1)^{\overline s}}\frac{(a-d)^{\overline s}(b-d)^{\overline s}}{(c-d)^{\overline s}}$$ Putting together we get $$A_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{n!}\cdot\frac{2n+c}{n+c}\cdot \frac{(a-d)^{\overline n}(b-d)^{\overline n}(c+1)^{\overline n}}{(a+1)^{\overline n}(b+1)^{\overline n}}$$ To see symmetry, we write $a$ as $y+c$, $b$ as $z+c$ and $d$ as $z+y+c$ to change the expression into the form

$$\frac{(x+y+c+1)^{\overline s}(z+y+c+1)^{\overline s}(x+z+c+1)^{\overline s}(c+1)^{\overline s}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline s}(y+c+1)^{\overline s}(z+c+1)^{\overline s}(x+y+z+c+1)^{\overline s}}$$ $$=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!}\frac{2k+c}{k+c}\frac{(-z)^{\overline k}(-y)^{\overline k}(c+1)^{\overline k}}{(y+c+1)^{\overline k}(z+c+1)^{\overline k}}\cdot \frac{x^{\underline k}s^{\underline k}(x+y+z+s+2c+1)^{\overline k}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline k}(s+c+1)^{\overline k}(x+y+z+c+1)^{\underline k}}$$

Finally, we take $s$ to infinity. Note that $\lim_{s\to\infty}\frac{\Gamma(s+a)}{\Gamma(s)a^s}=1$. The left hand side is equal to

$$\frac{\Gamma(x+c+1)\Gamma(y+c+1)\Gamma(z+c+1)\Gamma(x+y+z+c+1)}{\Gamma(c+1)\Gamma(x+y+c+1)\Gamma(x+z+c+1)\Gamma(y+z+c+1)}$$ The right hand side is equal to

$$=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^k}{k!}\frac{2k+c}{k+c}\frac{(-z)^{\overline k}(-y)^{\overline k}(c+1)^{\overline k}x^{\underline k}}{(y+c+1)^{\overline k}(z+c+1)^{\overline k}(x+c+1)^{\overline k}}\cdot {\underbrace{\lim_{s\to\infty}\frac{s^{\underline k}(x+y+z+s+2c+1)^{\overline k}}{(s+c+1)^{\overline k}(x+y+z+c+1)^{\underline k}}}_{=1}}$$ $$=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{2k+c}{c}\cdot \frac{(-x)^{\overline k}(-y)^{\overline k}(-z)^{\overline k}c^{\overline k}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline k}(y+c+1)^{\overline k}(z+c+1)^{\overline k}k!}$$ $$={}_5F_4\left(\begin{array}{cc}c/2+1, c ,-x,-y,-z \\ c/2 ,x+n+1,y+n+1,z+n+1\end{array};1\right)$$ This completes the proof.

As you can see, the proof utilizes no advanced theory of Hypergeometric series. All of it were elementary algebraic manipulations and a clever expansion.

Also, note that the condition writing as an infinite sum is $\Re(x+y+z+c)>-1$.


PS. If we take $z\to\infty$, we get

$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{2n+c}{c}\frac{(-x)^{\overline n}(-y)^{\overline n}c^{\overline n}}{(x+c+1)^{\overline n}(y+c+1)^{\overline n}n!}(-1)^n =\frac{\Gamma(x+c+1)\Gamma(y+c+1)}{\Gamma(c+1)\Gamma(x+y+c+1)}$$

For example, set $c=1/2$, $x=y=-1/2$ gives

$$\frac{2}{\pi}=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(4n+1)}{4^{3n}}\binom{2n}{n}^3(-1)^n$$