According to Wikipedia, all driftless diffusion processes are local martingales. How can you prove this? A driftless diffusion process $X$ is given by $$dX_t = \sigma(X_t)dB_t,$$ for a Lipschitz continuous function $\sigma$. I suspect that you should construct a localizing sequence of stopping times $\tau_n$ such that each $X^{\tau_n}$ is a martingale, but I don't know how to do that in this general setting.
1 Answers
Here's a proof.
First, we define a localizing sequence of stopping times $\tau^n$ by: $$\tau_n= \min(\{|X_t|\geq n\}),$$ if such a $t$ exists, and $$\tau_n=n,$$ elsewise. Now since $X$ is finite and continuous, we have $\tau_n\rightarrow\infty$ a.s.
Now we have to prove that $X^{\tau_n}$ is a martingale for all $n$. Observe that $X^{\tau_n}$ equals $\int_0^{t}\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})d W_t$, where $\sigma^n$ is set to zero when $|X_t|\geq n$, and equals $\sigma$ elsewhere. The Lipschitz-continuity of $\sigma$ now implies that $\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})$ is a bounded process. It is also progressive, because $X_t$ and $\sigma$ are continuous. Since it's bounded and progressive, by the dominated convergence theorem, we can approximate $\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})$ by elementary processes $Y^{n,m}$, which converge to $\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})$ in the L2 sense. These elementary processes are constant on a finite set of time intervals. For these processes we can easily verify that $\int_0^t Y^{n,m}dW_t$ is a martingale. By definition of stochastic integral, we have $$X^{\tau^n}=\int_0^t \sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})dW_t=\lim_{m\rightarrow\infty} \int_0^t Y^{n,m}dW_t $$ in the L2 sense, so this limit $X^{\tau_n}$ is also a martingale, as we needed to prove.
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One small gap here: The claim that $X^{\tau_n} = \int_0^t \sigma^n(X_t)dW_t$ is intuitively clear, but is probably worth proving. – user6247850 Mar 25 '25 at 19:02
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Oh, that is actually a mistake. Thanks for spotting it! I have corrected it now by adding a superscript $\tau_n$. – Riemann Mar 26 '25 at 00:34
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Yeah, I wasn't thinking of the typo, but this sort of has the implicit claim that $X^{\tau_n} = \int_0^t \sigma(X_s^{\tau_n})1_{s \le \tau_n} dW_s$. Which, again, is true and the intuition is clear, but it's something that requires a proof at some point. – user6247850 Mar 27 '25 at 15:18
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Yes, a proof would fill in some extra details. This can be done by separating the cases $t<\tau_n$ and $t\geq \tau_n$. – Riemann Mar 28 '25 at 04:39
$$\mathbb E x ( X_{t+s}| X_t = x) = \mathbb E x \left (x+ \int_t^s \sigma(x+\tau) dB\tau\right) =x +\mathbb E x \left( \int_t^s \sigma(x+\tau) dB\tau\right) = x $$
– Roland F Mar 24 '25 at 05:18