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According to Wikipedia, all driftless diffusion processes are local martingales. How can you prove this? A driftless diffusion process $X$ is given by $$dX_t = \sigma(X_t)dB_t,$$ for a Lipschitz continuous function $\sigma$. I suspect that you should construct a localizing sequence of stopping times $\tau_n$ such that each $X^{\tau_n}$ is a martingale, but I don't know how to do that in this general setting.

Riemann
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  • It's self evident by the definition of a martingale: Stepped at $t$ and started anew with the observed start point $X_t=x$,

    $$\mathbb E x ( X_{t+s}| X_t = x) = \mathbb E x \left (x+ \int_t^s \sigma(x+\tau) dB\tau\right) =x +\mathbb E x \left( \int_t^s \sigma(x+\tau) dB\tau\right) = x $$

    – Roland F Mar 24 '25 at 05:18
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    Hi Roland, thanks for your comment! I think that there's some details missing here: 1. Why does the integral have zero expectation? 2. If your reasoning would work, then every driftless diffusion process would be a martingale, but that's not true. – Riemann Mar 24 '25 at 12:16
  • The purpose of the Lipschitz criterion here is to ensure the existence of $X$. This is a bit stronger than is actually needed, but without some condition on $\sigma$, there may not be any process $X$ satisfying $X_t = \int_0^t \sigma(X_s) dB_s$. Then we just need to show that stochastic integrals are local martingales. This can be taken as part of the definition of the stochastic integral, or shown through approximation by simple processes. – user6247850 Mar 25 '25 at 12:56
  • @user6247850 My answer uses the Approximation by simple processes. Do you think it is correct? – Riemann Mar 25 '25 at 15:51

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Here's a proof.

First, we define a localizing sequence of stopping times $\tau^n$ by: $$\tau_n= \min(\{|X_t|\geq n\}),$$ if such a $t$ exists, and $$\tau_n=n,$$ elsewise. Now since $X$ is finite and continuous, we have $\tau_n\rightarrow\infty$ a.s.

Now we have to prove that $X^{\tau_n}$ is a martingale for all $n$. Observe that $X^{\tau_n}$ equals $\int_0^{t}\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})d W_t$, where $\sigma^n$ is set to zero when $|X_t|\geq n$, and equals $\sigma$ elsewhere. The Lipschitz-continuity of $\sigma$ now implies that $\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})$ is a bounded process. It is also progressive, because $X_t$ and $\sigma$ are continuous. Since it's bounded and progressive, by the dominated convergence theorem, we can approximate $\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})$ by elementary processes $Y^{n,m}$, which converge to $\sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})$ in the L2 sense. These elementary processes are constant on a finite set of time intervals. For these processes we can easily verify that $\int_0^t Y^{n,m}dW_t$ is a martingale. By definition of stochastic integral, we have $$X^{\tau^n}=\int_0^t \sigma^n(X_t^{\tau_n})dW_t=\lim_{m\rightarrow\infty} \int_0^t Y^{n,m}dW_t $$ in the L2 sense, so this limit $X^{\tau_n}$ is also a martingale, as we needed to prove.

Riemann
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  • One small gap here: The claim that $X^{\tau_n} = \int_0^t \sigma^n(X_t)dW_t$ is intuitively clear, but is probably worth proving. – user6247850 Mar 25 '25 at 19:02
  • Oh, that is actually a mistake. Thanks for spotting it! I have corrected it now by adding a superscript $\tau_n$. – Riemann Mar 26 '25 at 00:34
  • Yeah, I wasn't thinking of the typo, but this sort of has the implicit claim that $X^{\tau_n} = \int_0^t \sigma(X_s^{\tau_n})1_{s \le \tau_n} dW_s$. Which, again, is true and the intuition is clear, but it's something that requires a proof at some point. – user6247850 Mar 27 '25 at 15:18
  • Yes, a proof would fill in some extra details. This can be done by separating the cases $t<\tau_n$ and $t\geq \tau_n$. – Riemann Mar 28 '25 at 04:39