I will start with a few definitions:
- Let $X$ be a set, and let $i, n \in \mathbb{N}^*$ such that $i \leq n$. The $i$-th $n$-ary projection is defined as: $$\pi_i^n : X^n \rightarrow X$$ $$x_1, \dots, x_n \mapsto x_i$$
- Let $X$ be a set, and let $F$ be a set of functions of the form $f : X^n \rightarrow X$ (for $n > 0$). The clone generated by $F$ on $X$, denoted $C(F)$, is a set such that:
- $C(F)$ contains $F$
- $C(F)$ contains all the projections over $X$.
- For all $m$-ary functions $f \in C(F)$, and for all $n$-ary functions $g_1, \dots, g_m \in C(F)$, the function $h(x_1, \dots, x_n) = f(g_1(x_1, \dots, x_n), \dots, g_m(x_1, \dots, x_n))$ is in $C(F)$ - Let $\mathbb{B} = \{0, 1\}$ be the boolean domain. For all $n > 0$, we say that $f : \mathbb{B}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{B}$ is a boolean function.
- A boolean function $f$ is said to be falsity-preserving when $f(0, \dots, 0) = 0$ (according to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Functional_completeness). We denote the set of all falsity-preserving functions by $P_0 = C(\{\lor, \oplus\})$ just as in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Post's_lattice.
- Rule 110 is defined as $f(x, y, z) = (\lnot x \land y) \lor (y \land \lnot z) \lor (\lnot y \land z)$.
When we give only zeros to rule 110, it outputs 0. Therefore, rule 110 is falsity-preserving. It therefore belongs to $P_0 = C(\{\lor, \oplus\})$ It is therefore possible to generate rule 110 with $\{\lor, \oplus\}$ and composition and projections. However, from what I understood, this is false, as rule 110 can simulate a Turing machine, whereas $\{\lor, \oplus\}$ isn't Turing complete. Where is the problem? Is it really possible to simulate rule 110 using only $\{\lor, \oplus\}$? If so, what is the formula?