Let $a, b$ be positive integers such that $a(b+1)(ab+1)$ is a perfect square. Then, is it necessarily the case that $(b+1) \mid a(ab+1)$?
Numerical evidence indicates that this conjecture holds for $a, b \le 10\,000$. In the case that the conjecture happens to be false, I would be interested in a heuristic argument or intuition for why the implication is 'usually' true.
Progress
It's easy to see that the conjecture holds in the special case where $b + 1 = p$ is a prime, since if $a(b+1)(ab+1)$ is a perfect square then $p$ must divide it an even number of times. In particular, we have $p^2 \mid a(b+1)(ab+1)$. This argument is easily extended to $b+1$ squarefree.
I'm not sure how to proceed in the general case. I tried setting $d = \gcd(b + 1, ab + 1)$ and writing $b + 1 = kd$, $ab + 1 = sd$ for coprime integers $k, s$. Then the hypothesis can be rewritten as $$ a(b+1)(ab+1)\ \text{is a perfect square} \iff aksd^2\ \text{is a perfect square} \iff aks\ \text{is a perfect square}. $$ By using $\gcd(a, ab+1) = 1$ and $s \mid ab+1$, we see that $a, s$ are coprime. Combining with the fact that $k$ and $s$ are coprime shows that $ak$ and $s$ are coprime, hence are both squares.
On the other hand, the goal is to prove that $$ (b+1) \mid a(ab+1) \iff kd \mid asd \iff k \mid as \iff k \mid a $$ where the last step follows from $k, s$ coprime. I haven't figured out how to make further progress here.
Connections to Pell's equation
Ewan Delanoy remarks in the comments that this problem seems related to Pell's equations. Indeed, I encountered this conjecture while thinking about the following problem Determine all ordered pairs $(m, k)$ for which $f(m, km)$ is a perfect square, which asks to characterize pairs $(m, k)$ such that $$ \frac{km^2(m+1)(km+1)}{4} $$ is a perfect square. A friend showed me a partial solution to this question; the idea is essentially to show that, for fixed $m$, the $k$ that work correspond to solutions of the Pell's equation $i^2 - 4m(m+1)j^2 = 1$. Unfortunately, at one key point the solution assumes a strong divisibility result that we could not justify. Empirically I determined that, in fact, the assumption appears sound and follows from the conjecture here. I have written up the solution to the related problem assuming the present conjecture holds in case it is of interest.
Note $(a-1)b=(ab+1) - (b+1)$. The highest power of $p$ dividing this is $\gamma$ since $\gamma<\beta$. Since $\beta > 0$ we get $p\not | b$, so $p^\gamma | (a-1)$.
If $\gamma\neq0$ then $p$ divides both $ab+1$ and $b$, which is not possible. So $p\not|,(ab+1)$
I haven't used squareness, but that would force $\alpha+\beta$ to be even. That's as far as I got.
– Michael Hartley Aug 11 '25 at 03:13