I've been attempting to understand the irreducible representations of semi-direct products involving abelian groups; this is primarily motivated by a desire to understand Wigner's classification of elementary particles. It seems that these representations are well-understood for finite groups, according to a result sometimes called Mackey's theorem. This theorem states that an irrep of a finite group $G = H \ltimes A$ with $A$ abelian can always be expressed as the representation induced by the representation $\hat{\chi} \otimes \hat{\rho}$ of $G_\chi$, where:
- $\chi: A \to \mathbb{C}^\times$ is an irreducible representation of $A$;
- $H_\chi \leq H$ is the isotropy subgroup of $\chi$ under the adjoint action;
- $G_\chi = H_\chi \ltimes A$ is a subgroup of $G$;
- $\rho: H_\chi \to \mathrm{GL}(V)$ is an irrep of $H_\chi$ and $\hat{\rho}$ is the representation of $G_\chi$ formed by precomposing with the projection $G_\chi \to H_\chi$, and likewise for $\hat{\chi}: G_\chi \to \mathrm{GL}(V)$ (with the projection $G_\chi \to A$);
- the induced representation of $\hat{\chi} \otimes \hat{\rho}$ is the collection of all $G_\chi$-equivariant maps $\phi: G \to V$, with action by $G$ given by right multiplication with $g^{-1}$.
A proof of this fact is given in Serre's book on representations of finite groups (p.69), but it's all done in a sort of "abstract-nonsense" way (or perhaps I only see it this way because I don't have a deep enough understanding of character theory). The point of issue for me is that the result is genuinely surprising, in that I would expect we would need more than just the representation theory of isotropy subgroups to get all of the representations of the entire group. Unfortunately, none of the explanations I have found give me any more insight into this relationship other than "it happens to work."
My question, therefore, is the following: is it possible to "see" how we are able to build up an entire irrep of $G$ just from an irrep of $A$ and some $H_\chi$? By this I do not necessarily mean an explanation of the anatomy of the induced representation, but something more like a decomposition of an arbitrary irrep of $G$ into these two pieces. I am hoping to find a proof which is more illuminating in this regard, but if you are able to explain the deeper meaning of Serre's argument, or even perhaps give a motivating example, then that would also go a long way. Thank you!