Let $\alpha$ be an irrational real number and let $f:\mathbf{N} \to \mathbf{N}$ be defined as $$ f(n) = \lceil \alpha (n+1) \rceil - \lceil \alpha n \rceil. $$ Here, as usual, $\lceil \cdot \rceil$ is the "ceiling" operator.
I want to show that $f$ is aperiodic and, more generally, it isn't even "eventually periodic".
Recall that a sequence is eventually periodic if there is a positive period $P\in \mathbf{N}$ and number $M\in \mathbf{N}$ such that for all $m\ge M$ and all $l\in \mathbf{N}$ we have $$ f(m +l * P) = f(m). $$
I have tried a variety of things, but I end up getting stuck in the weeds.
Note that this is not true if $\alpha$ is rational, as in that case $f$ will have a period equal to the denominator of $\alpha$.
Any ideas are appreciated. I want to say something like this is discussed in Knuth's TAOCP books, but I don't have access to them right now.