Let $\mu$ be a finite non-negative regular Borel measure on $\mathbb{R}^2$ with no point masses. I am trying to understand the behaviour of certain Stieltjes measures when singularities appear: Assume for the product measures $\mu\otimes \mu$: $$\int_{\mathbb{R}^2\times \mathbb{R}^2} \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)d(\mu\otimes \mu)(x,y)<\infty$$ and $$\int_{|x-y|<\rho} \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)d(\mu\otimes \mu)(x,y)\to 0 \text{ when } \rho\to 0$$ which means that $\mu$ cannot concentrate in $\{x=y\}$.
Question We consider the sequence of Stieltjes measures $\mu_n(x)=\int_{\mathbb{R}^2} \eta_n(x-y) d\mu(y)$ where $\eta_n$ is the sequence of standard mollifiers, more precisely $\eta_n(x)=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{n^2}}\eta\left(\frac{x}{\frac{1}{n}}\right)=n^2\eta(nx)$ where $$\eta(x)=\begin{cases}\exp\left(\frac{1}{|x|^2-1}\right) &\text{ if } |x|<1\\ 0 &\text{ if} |x|\geq 1\end{cases} $$ I want to understand whether $$\int_{|x-y|<\rho} \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)d(\mu_n\otimes \mu_n)(x,y)\to 0 \text{ when } \rho\to 0$$ uniformly in $n$ in the sense that: for every $\varepsilon$ there exists some $\rho_0=\rho_0(\varepsilon)$ and $N_0=N_0(\varepsilon,\rho_0)$ so that for all $\rho<\rho_0$ and $n\geq N_0$ $$\int_{|x-y|<\rho} \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)d(\mu_n\otimes \mu_n)(x,y)<\varepsilon?$$ This would mean that this sequence cannot build concentrations at $\{x=y\}$.
Direct attempt $$\int_{|x-y|<\rho} \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)d(\mu_n\otimes \mu_n)(x,y)=\int_{|x-y|<\rho} \int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)\eta_n(x-u)\eta_n(y-v) d\mu(u)d\mu(v)dy dx$$ Rewrite the integral over $\{|x-y|<\rho\}$ to and integral over $\mathbb{R}^2\times \mathbb{R}^2$ by introducing a cutoff function $\chi_{\rho}(x-y)$ which is 1 for $|x-y|<\rho$ and $0$ if $|x-y|>2\rho$. Now we can rewrite the integral and change variables: $\tilde{x}=x-u$, $\tilde{y}=y-v$. Then $$\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\int_{\mathbb{R}^2} \int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|x-y|}\right)\chi_{\rho}(x-y)\eta_n(x-u)\eta_n(y-v) d\mu(u)d\mu(v)dy dx\\= \int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\int_{\mathbb{R}^2} \int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\int_{\mathbb{R}^2}\log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|\tilde{x}+u-y-\tilde{y}|}\right)\chi_{\rho}(\tilde{x}+u-y-\tilde{y})\eta_n(\tilde{x})\eta_n(\tilde{y}) d\mu(u)d\mu(v)d\tilde{y}d\tilde{x}.\\ $$ Because of the support of the standard mollifier we can restrict to $|\tilde{x}|,|\tilde{y}|<\frac{1}{n}$. In order to make use of the assumption I estimated the logarithm by the triangle inequality $$\log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|\tilde{x}+u-y-\tilde{y}|}\right)\leq \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{||u-v|-|\tilde{x}-\tilde{y}||}\right)\leq \log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{||u-v|-\frac{2}{n}|}\right)$$ and similar for the cutoff function but I guess thats just too strong. However I don't see how I can compare this expression just to $\log^{+}\left(\frac{1}{|u-v|}\right)$... my first intuition was that I only have to choose a bigger surround of $\{x=y\}$, more precisely I thought that I only have to choose $\rho+\frac{1}{n}$ instead of $\rho$ to get this estimate, but I don't see how I can get there.
Does anybody have an idea how I can make use of the assumption?