3

I came across the following identity in 2D (and I believe in 2D only):

$$\varepsilon_{kj}\delta_{il}-\delta_{ij}\varepsilon_{kl}=-\varepsilon_{jl}\delta_{ik},$$

with $\varepsilon$ the Levi-Civita tensor and $\delta$ the Kronecker delta. I can verify it by plugging in component values, but I'm struggling to see where it could come from.

Syrocco
  • 426
  • 1
    I’m no expert with indices myself, but what helped me most was simply working through a few examples by hand. When I first studied differential geometry, doing these computations manually did helped me develop an intuition for these scary looking creatures. I think it’s one of those things you just have to do by hand until you get a feel for it. It’s not very “sexy” and can be pretty tedious, but I don’t think there’s much more to it. – userא0 Dec 04 '25 at 15:23
  • @userא0 You are probably right :/ I was hoping for something using the known identity (things relating $\varepsilon_{ij}\varepsilon_{jk}$ to $\delta$s for example, but I guess it will be more complicated than just checking by hand even if there is a solution..) – Syrocco Dec 04 '25 at 15:27

2 Answers2

3

We may use the identity \begin{equation*} \varepsilon_{jl}\varepsilon_{mi}=\delta_{jm}\delta_{li}-\delta_{ji}\delta_{lm}. \end{equation*} Now introduce a new index $k$ and multiply by $\varepsilon_{mk}$ on both sides (summing over $m$), we will get \begin{align*} \varepsilon_{mk}\varepsilon_{jl}\varepsilon_{mi}&=\varepsilon_{mk}\delta_{jm}\delta_{li}-\varepsilon_{mk}\delta_{ji}\delta_{lm} \\ \varepsilon_{jl}\delta_{ki}&=\varepsilon_{jk}\delta_{li}-\varepsilon_{lk}\delta_{ji}, \end{align*} where we have used that $\varepsilon_{mi}\varepsilon_{mk}=\delta_{ik}$, your result is a few permutations of indices away. (note that $\delta_{ij}=\delta_{ji}$ and $\varepsilon_{ij}=-\varepsilon_{ji}$)

Eskil
  • 131
  • 1
  • 6
3

Eskil answers the question well, so here I will give a little tease. This can actually be realized as an identity on complex numbers; why this is equivalent will be left as an exercise. What we want to show is $$ \Im(k\bar j)\Re(il) + \Im(l\bar k)\Re(ij) + \Im(j\bar l)\Re(ik) = 0 $$ for all complex $i,j,k,l$ (which I have cheekily named after the indices in the original problem) and where $\Im$ and $\Re$ are the imaginary and real parts. We just expand and compute: $$ (k\bar j - j\bar k)(il + \bar l\bar i) + (l\bar k - k\bar l)(ij + \bar j\bar i) + (j\bar l - l\bar j)(ik + \bar k\bar i) $$$$ = k\bar jil + k\bar j\bar l\bar i - j\bar kil - j\bar k\bar l\bar i + l\bar kij + l\bar k\bar j\bar i - k\bar lij - k\bar l\bar j\bar i + k\bar lik + j\bar l\bar k\bar i - l\bar jik - l\bar j\bar k\bar i. $$ As you can see, all terms cancel.

  • Very pretty (and useful, as I was just thinking of using complex numbers instead of tensors for the 2D problem in which this identity arose)!! Thanks a lot – Syrocco Dec 04 '25 at 21:53