Let $\alpha>0$ and define $$S(\alpha)=\big\{\lfloor n \alpha \rfloor: n\in\Bbb Z^+ \big\}.$$ Here $\lfloor x\rfloor$ is the integer part of $x$ and $\mathbb Z^+$ the set of positive integers.
Question. Is it possible to find $\alpha,\beta,\gamma>0$, such that
$$ S(\alpha)\cap S(\beta)= S(\beta) \cap S(\gamma) =S(\alpha)\cap S(\gamma) = \varnothing\text{?} $$
It is well-known that the following holds $$ S(\alpha)\cap S(\beta)=\varnothing\quad\,\text{and}\,\quad S(\alpha)\cup S(\beta)=\mathbb Z^+ $$ if and only if $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are irrational (and positive) and $\,\,\dfrac{1}{\alpha}+\dfrac{1}{\beta}=1$.
Update 1. According to a 1995 Putnam examination question, there are no $\alpha$, $\beta$ and $\gamma$ for which $S(\alpha)$, $S(\beta)$ and $S(\gamma)$ form a partition of $\mathbb Z^+$.
Update 2. The following result holds:
$S(\alpha)\cap S(\beta)=\varnothing$ if and only $\alpha,\beta$ are irrational and if there exist positive integers $m,n$, such that $$ \frac{m}{\alpha}+\frac{n}{\beta}=1. $$
This is Theorem 8 in: Th. Skolem, On certain distributions of integers in pairs with given differences, Math. Scand., 5 (1957) 57-68.