There are many curves that extend integer exponentiation to larger domains, so why was this one chosen?
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6Because $e$ is the most awesome number, clearly. – David P Feb 07 '14 at 19:57
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1Arguably, any choice of exponential and its logarithm could be chosen but $e$ and $\ln$ play well with differentiation (in that they don't pick up factors of $\ln(a)$ if your base was $a$). – Cameron L. Williams Feb 07 '14 at 19:59
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1Exponentiation can be defined in different manners, for example by sequences. – Jose Antonio Mar 02 '14 at 05:05
6 Answers
It's economic. You define exponentiation to one base, say $e$, rigorously and reduce all other exponentiation to that case.
Edit: The reason why mathematicians chose just $e$ instead of $42$ for that purpose has reasons which go way beyond the scope of the OP's question.
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Why did this answer received two downvotes yesterday? What's wrong? – Michael Hoppe Mar 08 '14 at 18:18
I believe there is only one function $f(x, y)$, $f: \mathbb{R}^{+} \times \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ satisfying
- $f$ is continuous,
- $f(x, 1) = x$,
- $f(x, y + z) = f(x, y) f(x, z)$,
and that is $f(x, y) = x^y = e^{\ln(x) y}$, where $e^x$ is defined by the exponential function. Note that 2) and 3) fix the values of the function at rational $y$ (e.g. you can see that $f(x, 1/3) = \sqrt[3]{x}$, for example) with odd denominator in lowest terms, and 1) fixes them at the other rational and at irrational $y$. 3) is just the exponent law $x^{n + m} = x^n x^m$ for integer exponents assumed to hold for real ones.
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Very cool. Do you know where I can find a formal proof of this? – Christian Chapman Feb 07 '14 at 22:50
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I don't know of a source offhand, though Wikipedia mentions for the $x = e$ case to look at Rudin's 1976 analysis text, chapter 8, but says it's an exercise there. However, I don't think it should be too hard: just show the difference between any two candidates assumed distinct is zero on a dense set, and then by continuity it must be zero everywhere, giving a contradiction, and a proof of the uniqueness. Then just show that $e^{\ln(x) y}$ satisfies these properties. – The_Sympathizer Feb 07 '14 at 23:06
Because it has some very useful properties. For example
$$ \frac{d}{dx} e^x = e^x $$
but with another base you would need a constant.
An analogy is using radians instead of degrees once you get more advanced at trigonometry. Here again
$$ \frac{d}{dx} \sin x = \cos x $$
when $x$ is in radians. In other representations you need a constant.
Unlike the radians case, $e$ has some other very special properties that are both practical and worthy of study for their own sake.
For example $e^x$ has a very simple infinite series representation: $$ e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2!} + \frac{x^3}{3!} + \ldots $$
where $n!$ is factorial($n$).
and there is a relationship between $e$ and the trigonmetric functions $\sin$ and $\cos$:
$$ e^{ix} = \cos x + i\sin x $$
where $i$ is the imaginary number $\sqrt{-1}$.
So switching to using $e$ has some practical benefits at first, but as you go further it becomes quite fundamental to many branches of mathematics.
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What you want is that $x^y$ be continuous both in $x$ and $y$, and to coincide with the (real branch of) $x^y$ for rational $y$. For simplicity, apply natural logarithms to the relevant equations.
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$f(x)=e^{\ln(x)\cdot y}$ is the unique form satisfying natural exponentiation:
\begin{equation}\tag{1}f(x,0) = 1\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\tag{2} x\cdot f(x,y) = f(x,y+1)\end{equation}
and differentiability: \begin{equation}\tag{3}\frac{d}{dx}f(x,y)=y\cdot f(x,y-1)\end{equation}
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@user18921 Exponentiation of natural numbers. The first two properties take care of this: $f(x,0)=1$, so by $(2)$, $f(x,1)=x$ and so on inductively. – Christian Chapman Mar 02 '14 at 04:54
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Ah I see. I would prefer to phrase it: "extending natural exponentiation" and "behaving as expected under differentiation" – goblin GONE Mar 02 '14 at 05:35
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Hint: Do you know the property $a^{\log_bc}=c^{\log_ba}$. Clearly this applies here. Try to think of the proof for the above expression.
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@MichaelHoppe, that doesn't matter though, since $e^x$ is just shorthand for $\exp(x),$ and (somewhat ironically) the $\exp$ function can be defined without reference to exponentiation. – goblin GONE Feb 28 '14 at 23:26