Let $U$ be an open, bounded subset of $\mathbb{R}^n.$
Evans' well known PDE book defines the spaces:
$H_0^1(U)$:= $\{f\in H^1(U): \text{there exists a sequence} \; \phi_n \to f \; \text{in the} \; H^1(U) \;\text{norm, with} \; \phi_n \in C_c(U)\}.$
$H^{-1}(U)$ is the dual space of $H_0^1(U).$
My question: how come $H_0^1(U)$ is not self-dual?
Indeed, if we consider the inner product $(f,g):= \int f g + \int f' g',$ then it seems to me that all the Hilbert space axioms are satisfied. So the Riesz Representation Theorem would imply that $H_0^1(U)$ is self-dual. But then Evans would have defined the same space twice, which seems strange...